Does neostigmine improve time to resolution of symptoms in acute colonic pseudo-obstruction?

Neostigmine - The underutilized drug worth remembering

Ogilvie syndrome, a rare intestinal motility disorder associated with parasympathetic plexus dysfunction, can lead to severe complications like ischemia and perforation in hospitalized patients with significant comorbidities. This retrospective observational study assessed the efficacy and safety of neostigmine in treating Ogilvie syndrome at our center from January 2021 to December 2023. Thirteen patients received neostigmine after failing initial measures such as electrolyte correction, decompression, and intravenous prokinetics. Patients had a mean age of 66 years, predominantly male (77%), with 54% on polypharmacy. Neostigmine was administered in critical care settings under continuous monitoring. Symptom resolution occurred in 70% of cases, with a single dose achieving an 86% success rate in 54% of patients. Two doses were required for the remaining 46%, with a 50% success rate. No severe adverse reactions were observed. Neostigmine demonstrated high efficacy and safety in managing Ogilvie syndrome, highlighting its potential as a first-line therapeutic alternative to more invasive interventions.

Ogilvie syndrome with caecal perforation following cesarean section: a rare case report from Jordan

Introduction

Ogilvie syndrome is a rare condition characterized by acute colonic dilation. In 1948, H. Ogilvie first described it in medical literature. Its incidence is estimated at 100 cases per 100 000 per year in the US. Both abdominal distention and pain are considered major symptoms.

Presentation of case

A 32-year-old woman, 36+1 weeks pregnant, experienced labour pain and was admitted to the hospital. Upon examination, she was in labour, but the foetus was in a breech position, necessitating a caesarean section. After 36 h later, she returned to the emergency department with severe, 1-day-old diffuse abdominal pain, accompanied by moderate bilious vomiting and significant abdominal distension. Abdominal CT with contrast revealed pneumoperitoneum, abdominal wall emphysema, and pneumatosis intestinalis involving the caecum and ascending colon, suggesting bowel necrosis. Emergency laparotomy revealed a caecal perforation, which was closed surgically without resection.

Clinical discussion

Ogilvie syndrome is more common in males but can occur in females for several reasons, including pregnancy, caesarean section, pelvic surgeries, and trauma. Several factors contribute to the occurrence of this syndrome, such as pelvic fractures and cardiac events. Surgery may be required if there is suspicion of bowel perforation or ischaemia.

Conclusion

OS is a rare condition in women, often seen after childbirth or pelvic surgery, with an unclear cause but believed to be related to autonomic nervous system imbalance. Patients with abdominal pain and distension, without evidence of obstruction, should be evaluated for pseudo-obstruction using abdominal pelvic CT, and treatment may involve conservative measures, medication, and colonoscopic decompression.

Analysis of the association of sugammadex with the length of hospital stay in patients undergoing abdominal surgery: a retrospective study

BACKGROUND

Sugammadex is a newer medication used for rapid and reliable reversal of neuromuscular blockade. This study evaluated whether sugammadex could reduce the length of postoperative hospital stay in patients undergoing abdominal surgery.

METHODS

This single center retrospective cohort study included patients who underwent major abdominal surgery between January 2015 and October 2019. Patients were randomized according to reversal with sugammadex or spontaneous recovery. The primary outcome was length of postoperative hospital stay. The secondary outcomes were length of post-anesthetic care unit (PACU) stay, postoperative ambulation time, time-to-first-defecation, and incidence of pulmonary complications. After 1:1 propensity score matching, univariate and multiple linear regression analyses estimated the differences in outcomes.

RESULTS

Of the 1614 patients, 517 received sugammadex and 645 spontaneously recovered. After adjusting for potential confounders, non-linear relationship was detected between administration of sugammadex and the length of postoperative hospital stay (β = 0.29 95% confidence interval {CI}: [- 1.13, - 0.54], P = 0.4912). However, it was associated with shorter PACU stay (β = - 20.30 95% CI: [- 24.48, - 17.11], P < 0.0001), shorter time to postoperative ambulation movement (β = - 0.43 95% CI: [- 0.62, - 0.23], P < 0.0001), and reduced time-to-first-defecation (β = - 2.25 95% CI: [- 0.45, - 0.05], P = 0.0129), when compared to the spontaneously recovered group. The incidence of pneumonia in the sugammadex group was significantly lower than that in the spontaneously recovered group (18.6% [44/237] vs. 39.2% [93/237] P < 0.05).

CONCLUSIONS

Neuromuscular blockade reversal with sugammadex after abdominal surgery demonstrated an excellent recovery profile and was associated with decreased risk of pneumonia, although it did not affect the length of postoperative hospital stay.

Asystole Following Concomitant Intravenous Administration of Neostigmine and Dexmedetomidine in a Patient With Acute Colonic Pseudo-Obstruction

Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO) is a condition characterized by acute dilation of the large bowel without evidence of mechanical obstruction that occurs in a variety of hospitalized patients with many predisposing factors. Management includes supportive care and limitation of offending medications with mainstays of treatment of neostigmine administration and colonic decompression. We report the case of a critically ill patient with ACPO who experienced bradycardia and a brief episode of asystole when receiving concomitant dexmedetomidine and neostigmine infusions but who later remained hemodynamically stable when receiving propofol and neostigmine infusions. The bradycardia and associated hemodynamic instability experienced while on dexmedetomidine and neostigmine infusions were rapidly corrected with atropine and cessation of offending agents. Because ACPO is encountered frequently and the use of dexmedetomidine as a sedative agent in the ICU is increasing, practitioners should be aware of the additive risk of bradycardia and potential for asystole with the combination of neostigmine and dexmedetomidine. Electronic drug interaction databases should be updated and drug information sources should include a drug-drug interaction between dexmedetomidine and neostigmine to reduce the likelihood of concomitant administration.

American Society for Gastrointestinal Endoscopy guideline on the role of endoscopy in the management of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction and colonic volvulus

Colonic volvulus and acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO) are 2 causes of benign large-bowel obstruction. Colonic volvulus occurs most commonly in the sigmoid colon as a result of bowel twisting along its mesenteric axis. In contrast, the exact pathophysiology of ACPO is poorly understood, with the prevailing hypothesis being altered regulation of colonic function by the autonomic nervous system resulting in colonic distention in the absence of mechanical blockage. Prompt diagnosis and intervention leads to improved outcomes for both diagnoses. Endoscopy may play a role in the evaluation and management of both entities. The purpose of this document from the American Society for Gastrointestinal Endoscopy's Standards of Practice Committee is to provide an update on the evaluation and endoscopic management of sigmoid volvulus and ACPO.

Subcutaneous neostigmine appears safe and effective for acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (Ogilvie's syndrome)

BACKGROUND

Intravenous neostigmine is a well-established treatment for acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO). Its use is hampered by the perceived requirement for continuous cardiac monitoring, and patients are often transferred to high-dependency units for close observation during treatment. Subcutaneous neostigmine has the potential to minimize adverse cardiovascular effects while maintaining efficacy. This study aims to assess the safety of subcutaneous neostigmine on ward inpatients with ACPO monitored with standard nursing care.

METHODS

This is a retrospective case series of 30 patients with ACPO who were treated with subcutaneous neostigmine between August 2008 and October 2012. Data were collected prospectively. All patients were diagnosed using clinical examination and radiology and were assessed for contraindications to neostigmine. Patients were treated on regular wards and monitored with standard nursing observations. The main outcomes were time to flatus and bowels working and complications.

RESULTS

No serious complications such as clinically evident bradycardia were encountered. Ninety-three percent of patients had clinically successful resolution of ACPO. Two patients (7%) developed caecal tenderness and proceeded to colonoscopic decompression, which was successful in both instances.

CONCLUSIONS

Subcutaneous neostigmine appears to be safe for the treatment of ACPO. No clinically evident serious adverse events occurred, meaning continuous cardiac monitoring as a routine may not be necessary. In our cohort, we achieved similar success rates compared with reported rates using intravenous neostigmine.

Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction: A systematic review of aetiology and mechanisms

AIM

To critically review the literature addressing the definition, epidemiology, aetiology and pathophysiology of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO).

METHODS

A systematic search was performed to identify articles investigating the aetiology and pathophysiology of ACPO. A narrative synthesis of the evidence was undertaken.

RESULTS

No consistent approach to the definition or reporting of ACPO has been developed, which has led to overlapping investigation with other conditions. A vast array of risk factors has been identified, supporting a multifactorial aetiology. The pathophysiological mechanisms remain unclear, but are likely related to altered autonomic regulation of colonic motility, in the setting of other predisposing factors.

CONCLUSION

Future research should aim to establish a clear and consistent definition of ACPO, and elucidate the pathophysiological mechanisms leading to altered colonic function. An improved understanding of the aetiology of ACPO may facilitate the development of targeted strategies for its prevention and treatment.

Exam 4 Questions

A 73-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is currently in the stroke unit after suffering a right middle cerebral artery infarct. His symptoms started 2 h prior to arrival at the hospital, and tPA was administered. The patient is plegic on the left side and with mild dysarthria, but is otherwise neurologically intact. His labwork is within normal limits. Which of the following describes the optimal deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis regimen for this patient?A.

Wait 6 h post tPA, then administer unfractionated heparin (UFH) along with intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC)

B.

Wait 24 h post tPA, then administer UFH along with IPC

C.

Wait 6 h post tPA, then administer low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) along with IPC

D.

Wait 24 h post tPA, then administer LMWH along with IPC

E.

IPC only for the first 72 h, then LMWH or UFH after obtaining follow-up imaging

All of the following causes of acute encephalitis have the matching characteristic radiological features except:A.

Autoimmune limbic encephalitis: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the mesial temporal lobes

B.

Cytomegalovirus: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the subependymal white matter

C.

JC virus: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the parieto-occipital lobes and corpus callosum

D.

Herpes simplex virus type 1: restricted diffusion in frontal/temporal lobes and insular cortex

E.

Varicella zoster: T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the brainstem

Which of the following categorizations is most accurate regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in the setting of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?A.

Non-neurogenic, non-cardiogenic

B.

Neurogenic, non-cardiogenic

C.

Neurogenic, cardiogenic

D.

Non-neurogenic, cardiogenic

E.

None of the above accurately reflect ARDS in SAH

A 52-year-old female is admitted to the ICU with a Hunt-Hess 1, modified Fisher 2 subarachnoid hemorrhage. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and chronic renal insufficiency. She undergoes craniotomy for surgical clipping of an anterior cerebral artery aneurysm, and does not experience any additional complications. Two weeks later, she begins complaining of left calf pain, and a lower extremity sonogram demonstrated a proximal deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient weighs 60 kg. Her laboratory values are as follows: sodium 142 mEq/L, potassium 3.4 mEq/L, carbon dioxide 18 mEq/L, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 70 mg/dL, and serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL. What would be the optimal treatment for this patient’s proximal DVT?A.

Unfractionated heparin infusion for at least 5 days concomitantly with warfarin therapy

B.

Low molecular weight heparin 60 mg twice a day for at least 5 days concomitantly with warfarin therapy

C.

Fondaparinux 7.5 mg daily for 5 days followed by warfarin therapy

D.

Apixaban 10 mg twice daily for 7 days followed by 5 mg twice daily

E.

Rivaroxaban 15 mg twice daily for 21 days followed by 20 mg once daily

All of the following are currently implicated in uremic encephalopathy except:A.

Derangements in cerebral metabolism

B.

Alterations in the blood-brain barrier

C.

Accumulation of circulating toxins

D.

Imbalance of endogenous neurotransmitters

E.

Recurrent lobar hemorrhages

A 70-year-old female is hospitalized with a recent ischemic infarct. As part of stroke core measures, you obtain a hemoglobin A1c of 10.0. What is an approximate estimation of this patient’s average blood glucose level over the last several months?A.

70 mg/dL

B.

100 mg/dL

C.

130 mg/dL

D.

190 mg/dL

E.

240 mg/dL

A 28-year-old female with no known past medical history is in the ICU in status epilepticus, with anti-N-methyl D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antibodies isolated in the cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following is most likely to identify the root cause of her illness?A.

Transvaginal ultrasound

B.

Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest

C.

Contrast-enhanced CT of the brain

D.

Virtual colonography

E.

Thorough examination of the skin, particularly in sun-exposed areas

A 17-year-old male with no significant past medical history collapses during a high school football game, and goes into cardiac arrest. He did not have any complaints earlier in the day. The patient is brought to a nearby hospital, where is he resuscitated, intubated, and transferred to the ICU for further management. The patient is currently undergoing therapeutic hypothermia, and a work-up is underway to determine the cause of his sudden collapse. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?A.

Rupture of a previously undiagnosed cerebral aneurysm

B.

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

C.

Commotio cordis

D.

Severe hyponatremia and cerebral edema

E.

Brugada syndrome

A 31-year-old female at 38 weeks gestation is currently hospitalized for the treatment of preeclampsia. Due to her medical condition, her obstetrician is currently considering induced labor. At which point will this patient no longer be at risk for developing frank seizure activity as a result of her condition?A.

48 h postpartum

B.

1 week after delivery

C.

2 weeks after delivery

D.

4 weeks after delivery

E.

6 weeks after delivery

A 38-year-old male with no prior medical history presents to the emergency department with fever and severe headaches for several days. A CT scan of the brain is unremarkable, and the results of a lumbar puncture are pending. What is the most appropriate empiric antimicrobial regimen at this time?A.

Cefazolin and vancomycin

B.

Ceftriaxone and vancomycin

C.

Ceftriaxone, vancomycin and ampicillin

D.

Piperacillin/tazobactam and vancomycin

E.

Meropenem and vancomycin

The majority of intramedullary spinal cord neoplasms are:A.

Astrocytomas

B.

Meningiomas

C.

Metastatic lesions

D.

Ependymomas

E.

Hemangioblastomas

Which of the following derived parameter formulas is correct?A.

Cardiac index = cardiac output x body surface area

B.

Stroke volume = cardiac output/heart rate

C.

Systemic vascular resistance = 80 × (mean arterial pressure/cardiac output)

D.

Pulmonary vascular resistance = 80 × (mean pulmonary artery pressure/cardiac output)

E.

All of the above are correct

A 23-year-old female marathon runner is currently in the ICU after suffering from heat stroke following an outdoor run on a particularly hot summer day. She was initially delirious in the emergency department, but progressed to coma and respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation. Her oral temperature is 42.1 °C. Which of the following would be most effective in reducing this patient’s severe hyperthermia?A.

Regularly scheduled alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen

B.

Spraying room temperature water on the patient, followed by fanning

C.

Ice water immersion

D.

Dantrolene sodium, 2.5 mg/kg

E.

Application of ice packs to the groin and axilla

Hyperinsulinemia-euglycemia (HIE) therapy may be useful for toxicity related to which of the following?A.

Tricyclic antidepressants

B.

Calcium channel blockers

C.

Aspirin

D.

Digoxin

E.

Lithium

A 71-year-old female with a history of alcohol abuse is currently intubated in the ICU following a catastrophic spontaneous left basal ganglia hemorrhage with resultant herniation. You have just declared her brain dead. The patient’s family agrees to make her an organ donor, and the organ donation coordinator requests you initiate levothyroxine therapy. Which of the following benefits would be expected with this treatment?A.

Increase the number of solid organs available for transplant

B.

Eliminate the need for hepatic biopsy prior to liver transplant

C.

Eliminate the need for cardiac catheterization prior to heart transplant

D.

Eliminate the need for bronchoscopy prior to lung transplant

E.

Reduce the need for supplementation of sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium

Which of the following is not an element of the Full Outline of Unresponsiveness (FOUR) score?A.

Eye opening

B.

Respiratory function

C.

Brainstem reflexes

D.

Motor response

E.

Verbal response

A 23-year-old female is currently in the ICU with status asthmaticus. She was initially on noninvasive positive pressure ventilation, with an arterial blood gas (ABG) as follows: pH 7.13, pCO₂ 60 mmHg, PaO₂ is 61 mmHg, HCO₃ 24 mmol/L, and oxygen saturation of 90%. She is given continuous inhaled albuterol, intravenous steroids, and magnesium sulfate. She subsequently becomes more lethargic and is intubated, with settings as follows: volume assist-control, rate of 12 breaths/min, tidal volume of 500 cc, PEEP of 5 cm H₂O, and FiO₂ of 50%. Peak airway pressure is 50 cm H₂O and plateau pressure is 15 cm H₂O. A stat portable chest x-ray shows hyperinflation with no pneumothorax. A repeat ABG after 30 min of invasive ventilation shows the following: pH of 7.24, pCO₂ 49 mmHg, PaO₂ 71 mmHg, HCO₃ is 25 mmol/L. Which of the following should be performed next?A.

Increase rate to 16

B.

Increase tidal volume to 600 cc

C.

Initiate bicarbonate infusion

D.

Switch to pressure assist-control

E.

Maintain current settings

Which of the following mechanisms is implicated in super-refractory status epilepticus?A.

Influx of proinflammatory molecules

B.

Upregulation of NMDA receptors

C.

Upregulation of molecular transport molecules

D.

Downregulation of GABA receptors

E.

All of the above

A 85-year-old male with a history nephrolithiasis, mild dementia, and alcohol abuse presented to the emergency department after a fall from standing, and was found to a right holohemispheric subdural hematoma. His clot was evacuated successfully, in spite of his oozing diathesis in the operating room (INR on arrival was 1.4 with a platelet count of 88 × 10³/μL). His serum transaminases are twice the normal value, and he has had refractory chronic hyponatremia. He has had three convulsions during this week of hospitalization, in spite of levetiracetam therapy at 1.5 g twice a day. Over the past 24 h, he has had a marked increase in agitation. He has also just had a 5-s run of non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and his systolic blood pressure is now 85 mmHg. You are considering discontinuing his levetiracetam and starting a new agent. Which of the following would be the best choice in this scenario?A.

Carbamazepine

B.

Phenytoin

C.

Valproate

D.

Lacosamide

E.

Topiramate

A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD on rescue albuterol and ipratropium is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, and started on an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. He returns several days later complaining of increased salivation and worsening bronchial secretions in the absence of fevers, purulent sputum, or increasing dyspnea. These symptoms are not relieved by use of his albuterol. On exam, he has slightly decreased air movement throughout both lung fields without any clear wheezing, no focal rales, and a normal inspiratory to expiratory ratio. Which treatment option is most likely to be beneficial?A.

Increase frequency of short-acting ß₂ agonist use

B.

Add a standing long-acting inhaled ß₂ agonist

C.

Add glycopyrrolate as needed

D.

Add inhaled corticosteroids

E.

Add oral systemic corticosteroids

Regarding states of impaired consciousness, which of the following statements regarding arousal and awareness is correct?A.

Coma: intact arousal, but impaired awareness

B.

Minimally conscious state: impaired arousal and impaired awareness

C.

Persistent vegetative state: intact arousal, but impaired awareness

D.

Locked-in state: intact arousal, but impaired awareness

E.

All of the above are correct

A 62-year-old female is currently in the ICU following craniotomy for clipping of a cerebral aneurysm. Postoperatively, she is noted to have an oxygen saturation of 92% on 50% non-rebreather face mask, and her respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. She denies chest pain. Her blood pressure is 96/72 mmHg and heart rate is 120 beats/min. Nimodipine has been held according to blood pressure parameters. A portable chest x-ray shows hazy opacities bilaterally, and bedside echocardiogram shows decreased left ventricular systolic function with apical, septal, lateral, anterior, anteroseptal and inferolateral wall akinesis, along with apical ballooning. Which of the following should be performed next?A.

Intubate the patient and begin mechanical ventilation

B.

Call urgent cardiology consult for cardiac catheterization

C.

Start noninvasive positive airway pressure ventilation

D.

Administer broad spectrum antibiotics

E.

Administer albuterol and systemic corticosteroids

Which of the following is the most common etiology of acute spinal cord ischemia and infarction?A.

Atherosclerotic disease

B.

Rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm

C.

Degenerative spine disease

D.

Cardioembolic events

E.

Systemic hypotension in the setting of other disease processes

A 62-year-old female with a history of coronary artery disease has just been admitted to the ICU with a left-sided spontaneous basal ganglia hemorrhage. The patient takes 325 mg of aspirin daily at home, and you are considering platelet transfusion. Which of the following has been demonstrated regarding platelet transfusion in this setting?A.

Improved chances of survival to hospital discharge

B.

Decreased hospital length-of-stay

C.

Improved chances of survival at 3 months

D.

Improved modified Rankin scale at 3 months

E.

None of the above

Which of the following therapies has been shown to decrease the incidence of delayed cerebral ischemia (DCI) in the setting of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?A.

Atorvastatin

B.

Magnesium

C.

Methylprednisolone

D.

Nicardipine

E.

None of the above

A 70-year-old male with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and cigarette smoking (one pack per day for the last 40 years) is currently in the ICU with a COPD exacerbation. This is his third exacerbation this year, and was discharged from the hospital only 3 weeks prior. On your examination, he is alert, his breathing is labored, and he has rales at the right lung base. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, heart rate 120 beats per minute, respirations 28 per minute, and temperature 38.3 °C. His oxygen saturation on 50% face mask is 93%, and his most recent PCO₂ is 55 mmHg. Labs are notable for the following: white blood cell count 14.4 × 10⁹/L with 90% neutrophils, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 30 mg/dL, serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL, and glucose 240 mg/dL. Ketones are negative. He is currently on noninvasive positive pressure ventilation at 10/5 cm H₂O and 50% FiO₂, and broad spectrum antibiotics have been administered. An hour later, the nurse pages you because his heart rate is now 140 beats per minute and irregular, blood pressure is 85 systolic, oxygen saturation is 85%, and he is minimally responsive. You now hear bilateral rales, most prominently in the right lung base, and scattered wheezes. Which of the following should be performed next?A.

Increase inspiratory pressure to 15 and FiO₂ to 100%

B.

Start a continuous diltiazem infusion and give intravenous furosemide

C.

Start a continuous phenylephrine infusion targeting a mean arterial pressure (MAP) > 65

D.

Give 125 mg of solumedrol and administer albuterol via nebulizer

E.

Intubate the patient and initiate mechanical ventilation

A 57-year-old male with a history of epilepsy is currently in the stroke unit following a large right middle cerebral artery infarction. A nasogastric tube has been inserted, and 24 h continuous enteral feeds have been initiated. The patient is currently on 100 mg of phenytoin every 8 h for seizure prophylaxis. Which of the following measures should be taken to prevent the patient from developing subtherapeutic phenytoin levels?A.

Change to 18 h tube feeds, and only administer phenytoin at night

B.

Change to 18 h tube feeds, and only administer phenytoin twice daily

C.

Switch from standard to hydrolyzed tube feeds

D.

Switch from standard to glycemic control tube feeds

E.

Hold tube feeds for 2 h before and after phenytoin administration

A 37-year-old female presents to the emergency department with approximately 2 weeks of progressively worsening clumsiness and drastic mood swings. Her past medical history is significant only for Crohn’s disease, for which she takes both natalizumab and infliximab. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of her head is performed, revealing hypodense, non-enhancing lesions in the cortical white matter of the frontal and parietal lobes. Despite treatment, the patient expires 1 month later. Which of the following is true regarding the most likely diagnosis?A.

The diagnosis may be confirmed via CSF analysis

B.

The pathologic process spares oligodendrocytes

C.

It is a prion-based disease

D.

The condition is universally fatal despite treatment

E.

All of the above

A 58-year-old female presents to the emergency department with dry cough, fever and rapidly progressive dyspnea over 1 week. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and is maintained on weekly methotrexate and daily prednisone (which was increased to 30 mg starting 1 month ago for an acute flare). She takes no other medications. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 100/70 mmHg, heart rate 110 beats/min, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and temperature 38.0 °C. In the ED she develops progressive hypoxemia with oxygen saturation 92% on 100% nonrebreather, and is increasingly diaphoretic. She is emergently intubated, and a chest x-ray post intubation shows extensive bilateral lung opacities. Which of the following should be administered at this time?A.

Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

B.

Vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam

C.

Vancomycin, cefepime, and fluconzole

D.

Ceftriaxone, levofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

E.

Tigecycline only

A 45-year-old woman undergoes uncomplicated transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary macroadenoma. She appears well hydrated and is not complaining of excessive thirst. Post-operatively, she is noted to have increased urine output. Serum sodium is 137 mEq/L, and serum osmolarity is 275 mOsm/kg. What is the most likely cause of her polyuria?A.

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

B.

Diabetes insipidus

C.

Cerebral salt wasting

D.

Fluid mobilization

E.

All of the above are equally likely

A 36-year-old female with a recent lumbar puncture to rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage is now complaining of a severe headache unlike anything she has experienced previously. She reports her headache is worse when standing, and better upon lying flat. She is otherwise neurologically intact. All of the following medications may be beneficial in this scenario except:A.

Acetaminophen

B.

Ibuprofen

C.

Caffeine

D.

Aminophylline

E.

Methylprednisolone

Which of the following is the most common overall cause of acute myocardial infarction?A.

Coronary dissection

B.

Plaque rupture

C.

Imbalance between oxygen demand and supply across a fixed obstruction

D.

Coronary vasospasm

E.

Ischemia related to hypotension and decreased perfusion

A 78-year-old male is in the ICU recovering from sepsis and pneumonia. He was just recently extubated after 2 days of mechanical ventilation and sedation with a fentanyl infusion. Over the ensuing days, he develops worsening abdominal distention, poor bowel sounds, and no stool output. CT scan reveals significant colonic distention, but no mass or obstruction. Records demonstrate a normal routine colonoscopy performed 6 weeks ago. You have appropriately hydrated the patient, corrected any electrolyte abnormalities, placed a rectal tube, withheld all opiates, and given intravenous erythromycin, but to no avail. Abdominal x-rays continue to demonstrate marked cecal dilatation greater than 12 cm in diameter. What is the next best appropriate therapy for this patient?A.

Neostigmine

B.

Naloxone

C.

Metoclopromide

D.

Surgical consultation for hemicolectomy

E.

Endoscopic percutaneous cecostomy tube placement

Which of the following is the most common cerebral vascular malformation in the general population?A.

AV malformation

B.

Dural AV fistula

C.

Developmental venous anomaly

D.

Cavernous malformation

E.

Vein of Galen malformation

A 49-year-old female with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukemia and recent subcutaneous cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reservoir placement presents to the emergency department with fever, chills, and increased confusion for the past 3 days. Her CSF reservoir was last accessed 1 week ago. A thorough work-up reveals no other obvious infectious source, and there is concern for CSF reservoir-associated meningitis. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?A.

Coagulase-negative staphylococci

B.

Propionobacterium acnes

C.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

D.

Klebsiella pneumoniae

E.

Neisseria meningitidis

A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with headache, nausea, and vomiting. Non-contrast head CT is performed, revealing subarachnoid blood in the right Sylvian fissure, and conventional angiography reveals the presents of a large right-sided MCA aneurysm. The patient undergoes successful surgical clipping of her aneurysm, and is being observed in the ICU. On admission, the patient’s serum sodium was 142 mEq/L and the hematocrit was 37%; by the seventh post-operative day, the serum sodium is 127 mEq/L and the hematocrit is 44%. Bedside ultrasonography demonstrates an IVC diameter of approximately 0.9 cm. Which of the following interventions would be least reasonable at this time?A.

Fludrocortisone, 0.2 mg twice a day

B.

2% hypertonic saline, infused peripherally

C.

3% hypertonic saline, infused centrally

D.

Sodium chloride oral tablets

E.

1500 mL daily fluid restriction

Which of the following is true regarding central (non-infectious) fever?A.

Less common in subarachnoid hemorrhage

B.

More common versus infectious fever

C.

Earlier onset versus infectious fever

D.

Easier to confirm versus infectious fever

E.

All of the above

Flaccid paralysis is most commonly associated with which of the following forms of encephalitis?A.

West Nile

B.

Varicella zoster

C.

Rabies

D.

Herpes simplex

E.

Epstein-Barr

Which of the following would not be considered appropriate therapy for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?A.

Discontinuation of heparin products alone

B.

Danaparoid

C.

Fondaparinux

D.

Argatroban

E.

All of the above are acceptable treatment options

A 45-year-old male with severe blunt traumatic brain injury (TBI) from a motor vehicle collision suffered a ventricular fibrillation cardiac arrest at the time of injury with return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in the field after endotracheal intubation and one dose of epinephrine. On arrival to the emergency department, no regional wall motion abnormalities were noted on surface echocardiography and no ST segment changes were seen on the presenting EKG. Head CT revealed cerebral contusions but no extra-axial mass lesions. The patient is now in the ICU and found to be comatose without sedation. Mild therapeutic hypothermia to 33° is being considered in the management of this post-arrest patient. Which of the following statements is true?A.

Mild therapeutic hypothermia is contraindicated due to the risk of induced epilepsy

B.

Mild therapeutic hypothermia is contraindicated with any intracranial pathology on CT imaging

C.

Mild therapeutic hypothermia does not induce a clinically significant coagulopathy

D.

Patients who have sustained ROSC after an arrest associated with TBI do not benefit from therapeutic hypothermia

E.

Endovascular cooling is superior to surface cooling in young patients with ROSC

A 35-year-old male is in the intensive care unit following resection of a large right-sided meningioma. He is currently intubated and sedated on a continuous fentanyl infusion. The nurse calls you to the bedside due to concerns over “unusual ventilator waveforms”. Upon arrival, you note the following (see Image 1). What is the best way to describe this phenomenon?A.

Reverse triggering

B.

Double triggering

C.

Breath stacking

D.

Missed triggering

E.

None of the above; normal ventilator waveforms are present

Abdominal Pain in the Geriatric Patient

Abdominal pain in the elderly can be a challenging and difficult condition to diagnose and treat. The geriatric population has significant comorbidities and often takes polypharmacy that can mask symptoms. The presentation of common conditions can be different than that in the younger population, often lacking the traditional indicators of disease, making it of pivotal importance for the clinician to consider a wide differential during their workup. It is also important to consider extra-abdominal abnormality that may manifest as abdominal pain.

Reversal of neuromuscular blockade with sugammadex or neostigmine/atropine: Effect on postoperative gastrointestinal motility

STUDY OBJECTIVE

To compare sugammadex with conventional reversal of neuromuscular block in terms of postoperative gastrointestinal motility.

DESIGN

Double blinded, randomized, controlled clinical trial.

SETTING

Operating room, postoperative recovery area.

PATIENTS

Seventy-two patients with ASA physical status I or II, scheduled for total thyroid surgery were studied.

INTERVENTIONS

When 4 twitches were observed on train-of-four stimulation, neuromuscular block was reversed conversatively in the control group, and with sugammadex in the study group.

MEASUREMENTS

Time to first flatus and feces, incidence of postoperative nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and constipation were collected.

MAIN RESULTS

Median time of first flatus was 24 hours (18-32 [10-36]) in the neostigmine group, and 24 (18-28 [12-48]) in the sugammadex group (P > .05). Median (IQR) time of first feces was 24 hours (18-36 [10-48]) in neostigmine group, 32 hours (28-36 [12-72]) in sugammadex group (P > .05). There were no occurrences of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation.

CONCLUSIONS

Sugammadex may be safely used in cases where postoperative ileus is expected.

[Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction: Ogilvie syndrome]

Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO) is characterized by marked colonic dilatation which develops over several days. ACPO is due to a motility disorder and is not caused by colonic obstruction and occurs in patients with severe, often acute underlying diseases or postoperatively. It is associated with a 25-30% mortality overall that increases to up to 50% in patients who develop complications (e.g. colonic ischemia and perforation). The pathogenesis of the disorder has not yet been clarified and clinical symptoms and signs are relatively unspecific. In particular, ACPO has to be differentiated from colonic obstruction and toxic megacolon. For this blood tests and radiological tests are required, e.g. plain abdominal radiograph, abdominal computed tomography (CT) and water soluble contrast enema, which are also required for detection of complications. Patients with ACPO should generally receive supportive therapy for decompression of the gastrointestinal tract (e.g. gastric and rectal tubes) and to minimize predisposing factors. In most uncomplicated cases this leads to resolution of colonic dilatation. Clinical and radiological controls at close intervals are required until the condition is resolved. If patients do not respond within 1-2 days or if ACPO has already reached a critical duration (>3-4 days) or extent (i.e. cecal diameter ≥12 cm), neostigmine should be administered and leads to durable success in approximately 3 out of 4 patients. Patients who are still refractory to treatment should receive endoscopic decompression. More invasive therapeutic options, such as cecostomy or (segmental) colonic resection should only be considered for patients who still do not respond to treatment or present with the abovementioned complications.

An audit of best evidence topic reviews in the International Journal of Surgery

INTRODUCTION

IJS launched best evidence topic reviews (BETs) in 2011, when the guidelines for conducting and reporting these reviews were published in the journal.

AIMS

(1) Audit the adherence of all published BETs in IJS to these guidelines. (2) Assess the reach and impact of BETs published in IJS.

METHODS

BETs published between 2011 and February 2014 were identified from http://www.journal-surgery.net/. Standards audited included: completeness of description of study attrition, and independent verification of searches. Other extracted data included: relevant subspecialty, duration between searches and publication, and between acceptance and publication. Each BET's number of citations (http://scholar.google.co.uk/), number of tweets (http://www.altmetric.com/) and number of Researchgate views (https://www.researchgate.net/) were recorded.

RESULTS

Thirty-four BETs were identified: the majority, 19 (56%), relating to upper gastrointestinal surgery and none to cardiothoracic, orthopaedic or paediatric surgery. Twenty-nine BETs (82%) fully described study attrition. Twenty-one (62%) had independently verified search results. The mean times from literature searching to publication and acceptance to publication were 38.5 weeks and 13 days respectively. There were a mean 40 (range 0-89) Researchgate views/article, mean 2 (range 0-7) citations/article and mean 0.36 (range 0-2) tweets/article.

CONCLUSIONS

Adherence to BET guidelines has been variable. Authors are encouraged to adhere to journal guidelines and reviewers and editors to enforce them. BETs have received similar citation levels to other IJS articles. Means of increasing the visibility of published BETs such as social media sharing, conference presentation and deposition of abstracts in public repositories should be explored. More work is required to encourage more submissions from other surgical subspecialties other than gastrointestinal specialties.

Neostigmine for acute colonic pseudo-obstruction: A meta-analysis

INTRODUCTION

Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO) is an uncommon condition that occasionally develops in hospitalized patients with serious underlying ailments. Its early recognition is essential to reduce life-threatening complications. Few low-powered randomized clinical trials (RCTs) have confirmed the effectiveness of neostigmine for treatment.

AIM

To analyse the effectiveness and main side effects of neostigmine in the treatment of ACPO.

EXPERIMENTAL

A literature search was performed for all published RCTs, reporting on neostigmine as treatment for ACPO.

RESULTS

Four studies fulfilled the inclusion criteria, evaluating 127 patients: treatment group = 65, control group = 62. Neostigmine effectiveness to resolve ACPO with only one dose was 89.2% versus 14.65% (P < 0.001, NNT = 1 [95% CI 1-2]).

CONCLUSIONS

Neostigmine is a safe and effective option for patients with ACPO who failed to respond to conservative management.