Histopathological concordance between prostate biopsies and radical prostatectomy specimens-implications of transrectal and transperineal biopsy approaches

BACKGROUND

This study aimed to evaluate the histopathological concordance rates between prostate biopsies and radical prostatectomy specimens according to the applied biopsy approach (transrectal or transperineal).

METHODS

We studied patients who had been newly diagnosed with clinically significant prostate cancer and who underwent a radical prostatectomy between 2018 and 2022. Patients were included if they underwent a prebiopsy magnetic resonance imaging and if they had not been previously treated for prostate cancer. Histopathological grading on prostate biopsies was compared with that on radical prostatectomy specimens. Univariable and multivariable logistic regression analyses were performed to assess the effect of the applied biopsy approach on histopathological concordance. Additional analyses were performed to assess the effect of the applied biopsy approach on American Urological Association risk group migration, defined as any change in risk group after radical prostatectomy.

RESULTS

In total, 1058 men were studied, of whom 49.3% (522/1058) and 50.7% (536/1058) underwent transrectal and transperineal prostate biopsies, respectively. Histopathological disconcordance was observed in 37.8% (400/1058) of men while American Urological Association risk group migration was observed in 30.2% (320/1058) of men. A transperineal biopsy approach was found to be independently associated with higher histopathological concordance rates (OR 1.33 [95% CI 1.01-1.75], p = 0.04) and less American Urological Association risk group migration (OR 0.70 [95% CI 0.52-0.93], p = 0.01).

CONCLUSIONS

The use of a transperineal biopsy approach improved histopathological concordance rates compared to the use of a transrectal biopsy approach. A transperineal biopsy approach may provide more accurate risk stratification for clinical decision-making. Despite recent improvements, histopathologic concordance remains suboptimal and should be considered before initiating management.

A soluble LAG-3 protein (eftilagimod alpha) and an anti-PD-L1 antibody (avelumab) tested in a phase I trial: a new combination in immuno-oncology

BACKGROUND

Eftilagimod alpha (efti) is a major histocompatibility complex class II agonist activating antigen-presenting cells which leads to greater systemic type 1 T helper response and more cytotoxic CD8+ T-cell activation. This phase I trial evaluated the administration of efti, a soluble lymphocyte activation gene-3 (LAG-3) protein, combined with the anti-programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) antibody avelumab in advanced solid tumors.

PATIENTS AND METHODS

Patients with heavily pretreated metastatic solid tumors received intravenous avelumab (800 mg) combined with subcutaneously administered efti (6 or 30 mg) for up to 12 cycles, followed by avelumab monotherapy. The primary endpoint was the assessment of the recommended phase II dose (RP2D) of efti in combination with avelumab.

RESULTS

Twelve patients with different tumor entities were enrolled (six patients in each cohort). During treatment, no dose-limiting toxicities occurred, and the severity of most adverse events was grade 1 or 2. In total, nine serious adverse events were documented, resulting in a fatal outcome in two cases, but none of them were assessed to be treatment related. Five patients (42%) achieved partial response. The median progression-free survival was 1.96 months and the median overall survival was not reached, with a 12-month survival rate of 75%.

CONCLUSION

Subcutaneously administered efti plus avelumab was well tolerated, and efti of 30 mg was determined to be RP2D. The activity is promising and warrants further investigation in future phase II trials.

Ramucirumab plus irinotecan / leucovorin / 5-FU versus ramucirumab plus paclitaxel in patients with advanced or metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction, who failed one prior line of palliative chemotherapy: the phase II/III RAMIRIS study (AIO-STO-0415)

BACKGROUND

Paclitaxel in combination with ramucirumab is the standard of care second-line therapy in gastro-esophageal adenocarcinoma (GEA). As the number of taxane pretreated patients in the perioperative or first-line setting is increasing, it is unknown whether these patients benefit from re-applying a taxane in using the combination of paclitaxel and ramucirumab. Furthermore, the rates of neurotoxicity with first-line FOLFOX or FLOT range from 30%-70%, making second-line taxane-containing therapy less suitable to a meaningful portion of patients. This patient group is likely to benefit from a taxane-free second-line chemotherapy regimen, such as FOLFIRI and ramucirumab (FOLFIRI-Ram). Therefore, the RAMIRIS phase III trial evaluates the effects of the regimen of FOLFIRI-Ram in the second-line treatment after a taxane-based chemotherapy in patients with advanced GEA.

METHODS

The RAMIRIS trial is a randomized, open-label, multicenter phase II/III study comparing treatment of FOLFIRI-Ram (arm A) with paclitaxel and ramucirumab (arm B). The Phase II is already closed with 111 enrolled patients. In the phase III, 318 taxane-pretreated patients with advanced GEA will be recruited and randomized 1:1 to FOLFIRI (5-FU 2400 mg/m² over 46 h i.v., irinotecan 180 mg/m² i.v.; 5-FU 400 mg/m² bolus; leucovorin 400 mg/m² i.v.; on day 1 and 15, q28) with ramucirumab 8 mg/kg every two weeks (Arm A) or paclitaxel 80 mg/m² (days 1, 8, 15, q28) with ramucirumab 8 mg/kg every two weeks (Arm B). The primary endpoints are overall survival (OS) and objective overall response rate (ORR). Secondary endpoints are progression-free survival (PFS), disease control rate and safety and quality of life as assessed by EORTC-QLQ-C30 questionnaire.

DISCUSSION

The already completed RAMIRIS phase II demonstrated feasibility and efficacy of FOLFIRI-Ram. Especially docetaxel-pretreated patients seemed to markedly benefit from FOLFIRI-Ram, with favorable response- and PFS rates and lower toxicity. This offers a rationale for the phase III trial. If the RAMIRIS III trial transfers and confirms the results, they will affect the current treatment guidelines, recommending the combination therapy of FOLFIRI-Ram for taxane-pretreated patients with advanced GEA.

TRIAL REGISTRATION

NCT03081143 Date of registration: 13.11.2015.

A prospective, multicenter head-to-head comparative study in patients with primary high-risk prostate cancer investigating the bone lesion detection of conventional imaging and 18F-PSMA-PET/CT

PURPOSE

Prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT) is an emerging staging tool for patients with primary high-risk prostate cancer (PCa). Patients with primary metastatic disease are staged using PSMA-PET/CT imaging, while previously published randomized clinical trials relied on conventional imaging (i.e., bone scintigraphy (BS) results. The aim of this study was to compare the ability of bone metastatic lesion detection and changes in staging for ¹⁸F-PSMA-PET/CT versus BS in high-risk PCa patients.

METHODS

79 patients with high-risk PCa were prospectively staged using BS and subsequent ¹⁸F-PSMA-PET/CT before initial therapy. Patients who presented with a BS showing no metastases represented Group 1, and patients with a BS showing low-volume disease according to the CHAARTED criteria (<4 bone metastases, no metastases outside vertebral column or pelvis and no visceral metastases) represented Group 2. Metastatic risk group according to CHAARTED and treatment strategies based on both imaging modalities were assessed.

RESULTS

A change of CHAARTED risk group was observed in 9/70 (12.8%) of patients in Group 1. In Group 2, a change of risk group was found in 66.7% of patients, due to either upstaging (4/9 patients (44.4%)) and downstaging (2/9 patients (22.2%)). Treatment changes due to use of a different imaging modality occurred in almost 20% of patients.

CONCLUSION

In patients with negative for cancer results on BS, upstaging on ¹⁸F-PSMA-PET/CT occurred only infrequently. Moreover, ¹⁸F-PSMA-PET/CT resulted in both upstaging and downstaging in a substantial subset of patients with low-volume metastatic disease on BS. Treatment changes occurred in almost 20% of cases depending on imaging results.

Phase I INSIGHT platform trial: Advanced safety and efficacy data from stratum D evaluating feasibility and safety of eftilagimod alpha (soluble LAG-3 protein) combined with avelumab in advanced solid tumors

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Background: Stratum D of the INSIGHT platform trial evaluates s.c. eftilagimod alpha (efti, IMP321) combined with avelumab in advanced solid tumors. Efti is an MHC class II agonist which activates antigen-presenting cells followed by CD8 T-cell activation. Combination with PD-1/PD-L1 blockade aims at enhanced efficacy. Methods: This IIT platform trial consists of 5 strata: intratumoral (A) or intraperitoneal efti (B); s.c. efti with SOC (C) or with PD-L1 inhibition (D). Strat E is currently under development and starts soon with a new efti combination. This abstract focuses on preliminary data of Strat D. Patients (pts) received 800mg avelumab i.v. q2w along with s.c. efti: 6mg in cohort 1 (coh 1, 6 pts), 30mg in cohort 2 (coh 2, 6 pts). Primary endpoint: safety. Results: Recruitment has been completed with 12 pts (coh 1: gastric, gallbladder, colon cancer, pleural mesothelioma; coh 2: gastric, gastroesophageal, anal, rectum, cervix uteri). No dose limiting toxicities (DLTs) occurred. 10 serious adverse events (SAEs) were reported, none of them considered causally related (4 in 3 pts of coh 1 [1 acute renal insufficiency grade 5 in 1 pt, 2 preileus grade 3 in 1 pt, hearing impaired grade 4 in 1 pt] and 6 in 4 pts of coh 2 [1 anal hemorrhage and 1 gallbladder obstruction in 1 pt, 1 eye pain and 1 surgery to replace the feeding tube in 1 pt, each grade 3, 1 skin infection grade 2, 1 diffuse myocardial fibrosis grade 5]. 1 AE of special interest (AESI) possibly related with avelumab (sarcoidosis grade 1) occurred in coh 1. 2 pts completed max treatment duration with 24 cycles. In coh 1, 47 adverse events (AEs; grade 1-2, 29; grade 3, 14; grade 4, 3; grade 5, 1) occurred in 5 pts. Most common grade 1-2 AEs were nausea, pain in 33%, 33% of the pts. Most common grade 3 AEs were ileus, vomiting in 33%, 33% of the pts. 2 AEs grade 4 (hearing impaired, sepsis) and 1 AE grade 5 (acute renal insufficiency) were reported. All AEs grade 3-5 were considered causally unrelated. In coh 2, 51 adverse events (AEs; grade 1-2, 29; grade 3, 19; grade 4, 2; grade 5, 1) occurred in 5 pts. The most common grade 1-2 AE was hypothyroidism in 33% of the pts. 1 AE grade 5 (diffuse myocardial fibrosis) was reported. Only 1 AE grade 3-5 was considered causally related (urinary tract infection grade 3 related with avelumab). 5 pts showed partial response as best response (2 coh 1: colon, pleural mesothelioma; 3 coh 2: gastric, anal, cervical), 1 stable disease with clinical progression (coh 2) (all but one of these pts still alive), 5 disease progressions acc. to RECIST 1.1 (3 coh 1, 2 coh 2), 1 clinical progression (coh 1). Signals of activity were also observed in pre-treated MSS/PD-L1low pts. Conclusions: Combined treatment with avelumab 800mg and efti 6mg (coh 1) or 30 mg efti (coh 2) seems feasible and safe. No unexpected AEs occurred. Signals of efficacy with CPI combination were seen (DCR 50%). Clinical trial information: NCT03252938.

Quality of life and outcome of patients with metastatic pancreatic cancer receiving first-line chemotherapy with nab-paclitaxel and gemcitabine: Real-life results from the prospective QOLIXANE trial of the Platform for Outcome, Quality of Life and Translational Research on Pancreatic Cancer registry

Few data exist on health-related quality of life (QoL) in patients with metastatic pancreatic cancer (mPC) receiving first-line chemotherapy (Awad L ZE, Mesbah M Boston, MA. Applying survival data methodology to analyze quality of life data, in Mesbah M, Cole BF, Ting Lee M-L (eds): Statistical Methods for Quality of Life Studies: Design, Measurements and Analysis. Kluwer Academic Publishers 2002). The QOLIXANE study is a prospective, noninterventional, multicenter substudy of the Platform for Outcome, Quality of Life and Translational Research on Pancreatic Cancer (PARAGON) registry, which evaluated QoL in patients with mPC receiving first-line gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel chemotherapy in real-life setting. QoL was prospectively measured via EORTC QLQ-C30 questionnaires at baseline and every month thereafter. Therapy and efficacy parameters were prospectively collected. Main objectives were the rate of patients without deterioration of Global Health Status/QoL (GHS/QoL) at 3 and 6 months. Six hundred patients were enrolled in 95 German study sites. Median progression-free survival was 5.9 months (95% confidence interval [CI], 5.2-6.3). Median overall survival (OS) was 8.9 months (95% CI, 7.9-10.2), while median time to deterioration of GHS/QoL was 4.7 months (95% CI, 4.0-5.6). With a baseline GHS/QoL score of 46 (SD, 22.8), baseline QoL of the patients was severely impaired, in most cases due to loss in role functioning and fatigue. In the Kaplan-Meier analysis, 61% and 41% of patients had maintained GHS/QoL after 3 and 6 months, respectively. However, in the QoL response analysis, 35% and 19% of patients had maintained (improved or stable) GHS/QoL after 3 and 6 months, respectively, while 14% and 9% had deteriorated GHS/QoL with the remaining patients being nonevaluable. In the Cox regression analysis, GHS/QoL scores strongly predicted survival with a hazard ratio of 0.86 (P < .0001). Patients with mPC have poor QoL at baseline that deteriorates within a median of 4.7 months. Treatment with gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel is associated with maintained QoL in relevant proportions of patients. However, overall, results remain poor, reflecting the aggressive nature of the disease.

Real-life results from the prospective QoliXane trial of the platform for outcome, quality of life, and translational research on pancreatic cancer (PARAGON) registry

4625

Background: Gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel (NPG) is standard first-line therapy for metastatic pancreatic cancer (mPC), but the pivotal study did not include quality of life (QoL) analyses. Methods: The QOLIXANE-PARAGON study started as a prospective, non-interventional, multicenter study conducted in Germany and transitioned into a permanent registry for pancreatic cancer patients (pts) considering all types of treatments. This report focuses on the pts enrolled into the QOLIXANE portion of the study. Pts were recruited from 95 German centers. QoL was prospectively measured via EORTC-C30 questionnaires (prior to and every month thereafter): therapy and efficacy parameters were prospectively collected. QoL and efficacy endpoints were analyzed in the intention-to-treat population (ITT). The primary endpoint was the rate of pts without deterioration of QoL/Global Health Score (QoL/GHS) at 3 months. Results: 600 pts were enrolled. Mean GHS/QoL score at baseline was low and was 46.2 (SD 22.8). Median progression-free survival was 5.85 months (95% CI, 5.23 to 6.25). Median overall survival (OS) was 8.91 months (95% CI, 7.89 to 10.19). The KM-analysis showed that 61% and 41% of pts had maintained QoL/GHS after 3 and 6 months, respectively. Median time to deterioration of QoL/GHS was 4.68 months (95% CI, 4.04 to 5.59). Mean QoL/GHS improved from 46.1 (SD 22.7) at baseline to 52.8 (SD 21.3) after 6 months. In the QoL response analysis, 34.6%, 37.4% and 28% of evaluable pts had improved, stable and worse QoL/GHS after 3 months, respectively. In the Cox regression analysis, GHS/QoL scores strongly predicted survival with a HR of 0.86 (p < 0.0001). Conclusions: QoliXane the largest study on QoL of mPC. It shows that time to deterioration of QoL is short but that a relevant group of mPC in first line have improved or maintained QoL after 3 and 6 months and that QoL is a predictor of pts outcome. Clinical trial information: NCT02691052 .

Modeling Interoperable Information Systems with 3LGM² and IHE

BACKGROUND

Strategic planning of information systems (IS) in healthcare requires descriptions of the current and the future IS state. Enterprise architecture planning (EAP) tools like the 3LGM² tool help to build up and to analyze IS models. A model of the planned architecture can be derived from an analysis of current state IS models. Building an interoperable IS, i. e. an IS consisting of interoperable components, can be considered a relevant strategic information management goal for many IS in healthcare. Integrating the healthcare enterprise (IHE) is an initiative which targets interoperability by using established standards.

OBJECTIVES

To link IHE concepts to 3LGM² concepts within the 3LGM² tool. To describe how an information manager can be supported in handling the complex IHE world and planning interoperable IS using 3LGM² models. To describe how developers or maintainers of IHE profiles can be supported by the representation of IHE concepts in 3LGM².

METHODS

Conceptualization and concept mapping methods are used to assign IHE concepts such as domains, integration profiles actors and transactions to the concepts of the three-layer graph-based meta-model (3LGM²).

RESULTS

IHE concepts were successfully linked to 3LGM² concepts. An IHE-master-model, i. e. an abstract model for IHE concepts, was modeled with the help of 3LGM² tool. Two IHE domains were modeled in detail (ITI, QRPH). We describe two use cases for the representation of IHE concepts and IHE domains as 3LGM² models. Information managers can use the IHE-master-model as reference model for modeling interoperable IS based on IHE profiles during EAP activities. IHE developers are supported in analyzing consistency of IHE concepts with the help of the IHE-master-model and functions of the 3LGM² tool

CONCLUSION

The complex relations between IHE concepts can be modeled by using the EAP method 3LGM². 3LGM² tool offers visualization and analysis features which are now available for the IHE-master-model. Thus information managers and IHE developers can use or develop IHE profiles systematically. In order to improve the usability and handling of the IHE-master-model and its usage as a reference model, some further refinements have to be done. Evaluating the use of the IHE-master-model by information managers and IHE developers is subject to further research.

CE-MRA for follow-up of aneurysms post stent-assisted coiling

This study compared the accuracy of contrast-enhanced MR angiography (CE-MRA) to intra-arterial cerebral angiography (IA-DSA) for assessment of intracranial aneurysms after stent-assisted coiling and to check if the presence of a stent in the parent artery diminishes the accuracy of CE-MRA. Consecutive patients with cerebral aneurysms treated by stent-assisted coiling were evaluated retrospectively. Matching follow-up CE-MRA and IA-DSA were evaluated separately. Evaluation included the presence of aneurysmal remnant, patency and stenosis of parent artery. Twenty-seven patients with 28 aneurysms and 33 matched CE-MRA and IA-DSA studies were evaluated. Nineteen aneurysmal remnants were seen on CE-MRA and 16 on IA-DSA. CE-MRA diagnosed three aneurysmal remnants not appreciated on IA-DSA. Five other remnants were larger on CE-MRA than IA-DSA. None of the remnants were missed on CE-MRA. Parent arteries were patent on both modalities. CE-MRA showed false stenosis of the stented artery in six cases and exaggerated stenosis in two. In 18 cases, CE-MRA showed a short focal "pseudo-stenosis" where the stent's marker bands were located. This was noted whenever the stent's marker bands were located in an artery with luminal diameter ≤2 mm and was called "marker band effect". CE-MRA is an accurate technique for follow-up of aneurysms post stent-assisted coiling with excellent depiction of remnants in spite of the presence of a stent. Apparent stenosis of the stented parent artery on CE-MRA is often false or exaggerated. "Marker band effect" should be recognized as an artifact that appears when stent's marker bands are in a small artery.

Functional MR imaging in patients with carotid artery stenosis before and after revascularization

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE

Significant extracranial stenosis of the ICA is a known risk factor for future stroke and it has been shown that revascularization reduces the risk of future stroke. We applied BOLD fMRI in patients with carotid artery stenosis before and after CEA. Our purpose was to determine whether fMRI is able to demonstrate impaired CVR and to identify patient parameters that are associated with postoperative changes of cerebral hemodynamics.

MATERIALS AND METHODS

Nineteen consecutive patients with symptomatic (n = 13) and asymptomatic (n = 6) stenosis of the ICA were prospectively recruited (male/female ratio = 16:3; age, 69 ± 8,1 years). fMRI using a simple bilateral motor task was performed immediately before and after CEA.

RESULTS

Mean BOLD MSC was significantly increased postoperatively (MSC, 0.13 ± 0.66; P = 0.0002). Patients with a stenosis of <80% demonstrated an increase in MSC (MSC, 0.32 ± 0.59; P ≤ .0001). Patients with previous ischemic stroke showed a larger MSC than patients with TIAs (stroke: MSC, 0.55 ± 0.65; P ≤ .0001; TIA: MSC, 0.05 ± 0.26; P = 0.054). Patients older than 70 years had a significantly larger MSC following surgery (≤70 years: MSC, -0.01 ± 0.39; P = .429; >70 years: MSC, 0.29 ± 0.48; P ≤ .0001).

CONCLUSIONS

BOLD fMRI can demonstrate changes in cerebral hemodynamics before and after CEA, indicative of an ameliorated CVR. This response is dependent on the age of the patient, the degree of preoperative stenosis, and the patient's symptoms.

Glucocorticoid receptor variants: clinical implications

Following exposure to stress, cortisol is secreted from the adrenal cortex under the control of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA-axis). Central in the regulation of the HPA-axis is a two tied corticosteroid-receptor system, comprised of high and low affinity receptors, the mineralocorticoid receptor (MR) and the glucocorticoid receptor (GR), respectively. In addition, these corticosteroid receptors mediate the effects of cortisol during stress on both central and peripheral targets. Cortisol modulates gene-expression of corticosteroid-responsive genes, with the effect lasting from hours to days. Mutations in the GR-gene are being associated with corticosteroid resistance and haematological malignancies, although these mutations are relatively rare and probably not a common cause of these diseases. However, several GR-gene variants and single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP) in the GR-gene have been identified which are relatively common in the human population. The GRbeta-variant, for example, has been proposed to influence corticosteroid-sensitivity and most evidence has been derived from the immune system and in particular asthma. With respect to polymorphisms, a BclI restriction fragment polymorphism and a Asp363Ser have been described, which not only influence the regulation of the HPA-axis, but are also associated with changes in metabolism and cardiovascular control. These associations of a GR-gene polymorphism with metabolism and cardivascular control, and also with the regulation of the HPA-axis, indicates an important underlying role of cortisol in the etiology of these complex disorders. Therefore, we propose that a common underlying defect in these complex disorders is a disregulation of the HPA-axis, especially during stress. The clinical implication is that the regulation of the HPA-axis should be envisioned as a primary target of new drugs for the treatment of stress-related disorders.

Genetic dissection of corticosterone receptor function in the rat hippocampus

The hippocampus, a brain structure with a crucial role in learning and memory and an involvement in stress-related neurological or psychiatric disorders, is extremely sensitive to aberrant levels of corticosteroid stress hormones (CORT). We hypothesized that CORT-affected brain disorders are the result of aberrant expression of specific CORT-responsive genes. In order to identify such genes, we have applied several gene expression profiling techniques such as differential display, DNA micro-arrays and in particular the highly sensitive serial analysis of gene expression (SAGE). Using SAGE, a total of 76,790 hippocampal tags were generated which together represent 28,748 unique mRNAs of which 4626 gave a hit with rat sequences in Genbank. By comparing SAGE profiles derived from rat hippocampi treated with different concentrations of corticosteroids, we have identified over 200 CORT-responsive genes with significant differential expression in hippocampus. The identified products include genes that are important for the plasticity of hippocampal neurones such as neural cell adhesion molecules, growth-promoting proteins, genes involved in axogenesis, synaptogenesis and signal-transduction. One novel corticosteroid-responsive gene, classified as Ca2+/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase (CaMK)-VI, exhibited structural resemblance with the family of CaMKs, in particular with that of CaMK-IV. We also identified an alternatively spliced mRNA of this gene encoding a peptide (CaMK-kinase related peptide or CARP) which may function in an autoregulatory feedback loop. These findings suggest a novel mode of operation of the CaMK pathway in control of Ca2+ homeostasis relevant for CORT-related brain disorders.

Kainate-elicited seizures induce mRNA encoding a CaMK-related peptide: a putative modulator of kinase activity in rat hippocampus

By means of differential display techniques, we have previously identified an mRNA transcript whose expression is highly induced in the rat hippocampus by kainate-elicited seizures. Here, we report the cloning of a corresponding cDNA encoding a 55-amino-acid, serine-rich peptide which contains four predicted phosphorylation sites. The peptide was designated CaMK-related peptide (CARP) as it shares significant amino acid sequence identity with part of a novel putative calcium/calmodulin-dependent kinase (CaMK-VI) that was also cloned in this study. It appears that CARP and CaMK-VI are derived from the same gene through differential splicing. Intriguingly, CARP also exhibits 64% amino acid sequence identity with the C-terminal part of human doublecortin, encoded by a recently identified gene which is mutated in patients with X-linked lissencephaly and the double-cortex syndrome. In addition, the structure of CARP resembles the autoinhibitory, serine-rich N-terminal domain of CaMK-IV, suggesting a possible modulatory role of CARP with respect to CaMK activity. Northern blot analysis and in situ hybridization experiments showed that CARP mRNA is specifically induced by kainate-elicited seizures in the dentate gyrus and in the pyramidal layers CA1 and CA2, but not in CA3. In contrast, kainate-induced seizures did not change the level of expression of the CaMK-VI gene. We propose that CARP induction leads to the modulation of kinase activity in specific subregions of the rat hippocampus, providing a negative feedback mechanism for seizure-induced kinases.

Peptidylarginine deiminase activity in postmortem white matter of patients with multiple sclerosis

The myelin sheath in multiple sclerosis (MS) appears to contain a higher proportion of the citrullinated isoform of myelin basic protein MBP-C8. In vitro, MBP-associated arginine is deiminated to citrulline by the enzyme peptidylarginine deiminase (PAD). We investigated PAD activity in white matter from postmortem human brain samples by measuring the formation of citrulline from benzoylarginine ethyl esther. PAD activity in MS white matter was not different from that in controls. In neonates, in whom MBP is exclusively of the C8 type, white matter PAD activity was not different from that in adults. Our results suggest that in human brain either PAD plays no role in the formation of MBP-C8, or there may be a better accessibility of MBP in myelin in neonates and MS to the enzyme.

Insulin-like growth factor system in serum and cerebrospinal fluid in patients with multiple sclerosis

The insulin-like growth factor (IGF) system influences oligodendrocyte survival, myelination, and immune functions. We examined whether alterations in the circulating IGF system occur in multiple sclerosis (MS), a chronic inflammatory demyelinating disease of the central nervous system. We measured concentrations of IGF-I, IGF-II, and insulin-like growth factor binding proteins -1, -2, and -3 in both serum and cerebrospinal fluid from MS patients and age- and sex-matched controls. IGFBP-1 was not detectable in cerebrospinal fluid. We found no significant differences in any of the other components between patients with MS and controls.

Psychologic symptoms before and after parathyroid surgery

PURPOSE

To identify in an outpatient setting the type and number of psychologic symptoms of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism before and after surgery.

PATIENTS AND METHODS

A convenience sample of 18 patients with primary hyperparathyroidism and a comparison sample of 20 patients with benign thyroid disease were scheduled by their primary care physician to have surgery. Assessments of psychologic symptoms, using the Symptom Checklist-90-Revised, and measurements of serum total calcium, ionized calcium, parathyroid hormone, albumin, alkaline phosphatase, urea nitrogen, creatinine, protein, and phosphate were obtained preoperatively. and at 1, 3, and 6 months postoperatively.

RESULTS

The hyperparathyroid group had significantly higher (p < 0.01) levels of total and ionized serum calcium and parathyroid hormone preoperatively, with biochemical normalization 1 month postoperatively. These patients showed multidimensional psychologic symptom distress preoperatively in the areas of obsession-compulsion, interpersonal sensitivity, depression, anxiety, hostility, and psychoticism; they also had a greater number and intensity of distressful symptoms. Paranoid ideation was significantly higher in the hyperparathyroid group than in the comparison group, but it did not quite reach the clinical range. The greatest improvement in symptoms occurred by 1 month after surgery, with the hyperparathyroid group approaching the normative mean. There were no group differences before or after surgery for the areas of somatization and phobic anxiety.

CONCLUSIONS

The Symptom Checklist-90-Revised is a simple, quick, and cost-effective way to quantitatively assess the psychologic symptoms of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism. We found that psychologic symptom distress is multidimensional, that symptoms had profoundly improved by 1 month after parathyroidectomy, and that somatization and anxiety did not differ between our groups.

Recurrent hyperparathyroidism from benign neoplastic seeding: a review with recommendations for management

Benign neoplastic seeding represents a rare cause of hyperparathyroidism found at parathyroid reoperations. It consists of pathologically benign neoplastic parathyroid tissue scattered throughout a previous parathyroid surgical site. We describe a case of recurrent and then persistent hyperparathyroidism occurring in a patient during an 18-year period. The patient's third operation showed nonmalignant parathyroid tissue throughout the right neck bed, which necessitated extensive parathyroid and fibrofatty tissue dissection and a thyroidectomy. This unexpected finding of extensive parathyroid seeding has only been described in detail in ten other patients in the past. A review of these 11 patients shows several features: initial operations were for large parathyroid tumors or cysts in six patients; rupture and spillage of contents occurred in six; and initial hypercalcemia was severe in several patients, perhaps indicating inherently more aggressive tumors. The appearance of benign neoplastic seeding resembled parathyroid carcinoma in its local invasiveness. Therefore the presence of anaplasia, mitoses, capsular invasion, and cellular spindling must be relied on as distinguishing factors. When confronted with this presentation, we recommend removal of all nodal bearing, thyroid, and fibrofatty tissue from the level of the thyroid cartilage to the superior mediastinum and a thyroidectomy if necessary.

Ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone syndrome: localization studies in 28 patients

A variety of imaging procedures were performed in 28 patients with ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) syndrome in an attempt to localize the ACTH-producing tumor. Diagnosis was made on the basis of removal of an ACTH-producing tumor or biopsy of metastases in the 19 patients with a proved source and the absence of ACTH gradients in bilateral samples of the inferior petrosal sinuses in the nine patients in whom an ACTH-secreting tumor had not been localized. Eleven bronchial carcinoids, two thymic carcinoids, three pheochromocytomas, and three islet-cell tumors constituted the proved sources. The condition has been cured in eight patients, six are alive with residual tumor, and five have died. Of the nine patients with undetected sites of ACTH production, one has died of pneumocystis pneumonia and eight are being treated medically or with bilateral adrenalectomy. Computed tomography (CT) of the chest and abdomen was the most helpful study in the detection of these tumors. Selective arteriography (bronchial and visceral), systemic and portal venous sampling, and iodine-131 meta-iodobenzylguanidine scintigraphy failed to demonstrate tumors when findings at CT were negative. Bronchial carcinoids constituted most of the ACTH-secreting tumors in this study (58%) and in a review of four large series (47%). To assure early detection of these potentially malignant tumors, pulmonary CT should be performed every 6 months, even after hypercortisolism has been medically or surgically controlled.

Graves' disease with thyrotoxicosis following subacute thyroiditis

Two patients are described who manifested the sequential occurrence of Graves' disease and subacute thyroiditis. The literature on this very unusual event is reviewed and speculation is offered on a possible mechanism linking thyroiditis to activation of Graves' disease in susceptible persons.

Parathymic parathyroid: CT, US, and angiographic findings

Six patients with primary hyperparathyroidism caused by an undescended parathymic adenoma are described. All glands were anterior to the common carotid artery at the level of the hyoid bone. Blood supply was from the superior thyroid artery, and venous drainage was into the superior thyroid vein. Ultrasound (one of five) and computed tomography (two of six) were rarely positive, but glands can be detected with both modalities if the examination is carried high enough. Glands within the carotid sheath are generally lower in the neck and have a blood supply from the inferior thyroid artery with drainage into the vertebral veins.

Circadian rhythm of serum cortisol in Cushing's disease

Two women with typical clinical and biochemical features of pituitary-dependent Cushing's disease each underwent hourly blood sampling for 24 h on two separate occasions for measurement of serum cortisol. The 24-h mean serum cortisol concentrations (17.7 and 15.4 micrograms/dl in patient 1; 19.0 and 15.8 micrograms/dl in patient 2) were elevated (normal level, less than 12.5 micrograms/dl), as expected. Cosinor analysis of the patients' serum cortisol patterns revealed statistically significant circadian rhythms on all four profiles. The amplitude of the rhythm on both occasions in patient 1 (5.8 and 6.6 micrograms/dl) and on one of two occasions in patient 2 (7.2 and 10.5 micrograms/dl) fell in the range for the amplitude of the cortisol circadian rhythm in normal subjects (2.2-8.6 micrograms/dl). In contrast to commonly held belief, some patients with Cushing's disease may exhibit circadian variation of serum cortisol.

Detection of mediastinal parathyroid glands by nonselective digital arteriography

Six patients with failed previous operations and anterior mediastinal parathyroid glands were evaluated with selective angiography and nonselective arterial digital arteriography. Selective angiography depicted two of nine mediastinal glands; nonselective arterial digital arteriography depicted only one of nine mediastinal glands and missed a sizable (4.5 cm) gland demonstrated by routine arteriography. Nonselective arterial digital arteriography did not demonstrate any additional mediastinal glands. From this preliminary experience, it was concluded that nonselective arterial digital arteriography is not a sensitive method for detecting mediastinal glands.

Petrosal sinus sampling for Cushing syndrome: anatomical and technical considerations. Work in progress

ACTH-producing microadenomas of the pituitary gland drain unilaterally into the adjacent cavernous sinus; therefore, petrosal sinus sampling to distinguish pituitary from ectopic-ACTH syndromes must always be performed bilaterally. A negative finding from a unilateral petrosal sinus sample does not exclude the presence of a contralateral ACTH-producing microadenoma. Hemiresection of the pituitary gland based on results of bilateral sampling can be performed if the adenoma is too small to be recognized at surgery. Large pituitary adenomas produce elevated ACTH levels in the petrosal sinuses bilaterally. However, if plain radiographs or CT scans provide unequivocally positive findings in Cushing syndrome (less than 20%), inferior petrosal sinus sampling is not indicated.

Hyperfunctioning cystic parathyroid glands: CT and sonographic findings

Four functioning cystic parathyroid glands were evaluated with computed tomography (CT) and sonography in four patients, only one of whom had prior surgery. Sonography demonstrated solid lesions of decreased echogenicity with fluid-filled cavities near the lower thyroid poles or in the posterosuperior mediastinum. On CT the cystic parts of the lesions were of low attenuation (1-44 H), often with a well defined wall that was better demonstrated after intravenous contrast administration. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy of two of the cystic parathyroids revealed elevated parathyroid hormone levels. These lesions probably represent degenerating adenomas rather than true parathyroid cysts. While the CT and sonographic findings are nonspecific, the diagnosis of a cystic parathyroid should be entertained when a fluid-filled lesion is encountered in the neck of a patient with or without hypercalcemia. The diagnosis may be confirmed by assay of parathyroid hormone from the fluid aspirate.

Aspiration of enlarged parathyroid glands for parathyroid hormone assay

Enlarged parathyroid glands were percutaneously aspirated under computed tomographic (CT) control in 7 patients, and levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) and human thyroglobulin (HTg) were measured. All 7 patients had high levels of PTH in at least 1 specimen. It is concluded that the measurement of high concentrations of PTH in the aspirate from a cervical or mediastinal mass, with CT documentation of needle position, provides absolute localization of parathyroid masses.

Hypocalcemia with osteoblastic metastases in patient with prostate carcinoma. A cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A 68 year old man with prostatic carcinoma and extensive painful osteoblastic metastases was discovered to have hypocalcemia (serum calcium 7.1 mg/dl) without evidence of hypoalbuminemia, renal failure or malabsorption. Baseline studies revealed hypocalciuria (24 hour urine calcium less than 5 mg/day), normal serum phosphate (3.4 mg/dl), low tubular reabsorption of phosphate (68 percent), undetectable serum calcitonin, normal serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D, slightly elevated serum parathyroid hormone level and increased urinary cyclic AMP (8.87 mumol/g creatinine). These studies were compatible with secondary hyperparathyroidism. The intravenous administration of parathyroid extract produced no further change in urinary phosphate but a 25-fold increase in nephrogenous cyclic AMP. Three days administration of intramuscular parathyroid extract slowly and temporarily restored serum calcium to normal levels while increasing urinary cyclic AMP and phosphate. Chemotherapy with cyclophosphamide and 5-fluorouracil rendered the patient free of pain while reducing serum acid and alkaline phosphatase levels and restoring serum total and ionized calcium and urinary cyclic AMP excretion to normal.

Skeletal responsiveness in pseudohypoparathyroidism. A spectrum of clinical disease

Three cases of pseudohypoparathyroidism with roentgenographic evidence of hyperparathyroid bone disease are described. Renal resistance to exogenous parathyroid hormone (PTH), the hallmark of pseudohypoparathyroidism, was documented by markedly blunted or absent urinary phosphate and cyclic AMP responses to parathyroid extract. At the time of diagnosis all patients were hypocalcemic and hyperphosphatemic with elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels and subperiosteal resorption noted on skeletal films. Bone biopsy in one patient revealed a histologic appearance consistent with hyperparathyroidism. Serum PTH levels, measured in two patients while they were hypocalcemic, were elevated. None of the patients had short stature, brachydactyly, subcutaneous calcification or mental deficiency. These cases are compared to the 15 well-documented cases previously reported. The presently available information on pseudohypoparathyroidism indicates a variable skeletal response to PTH mediated by several factors extrinsic to bone and suggests that pseudohypoparathyroidism with hyperparathyroid bone disease is one extreme of a clinical spectrum of skeletal responsiveness to PTH. This disorder is part of an expanding clinical picture which makes pseudohypoparathyroidism a diagnostic consideration in any patient with unexplained hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase levels or metabolic bone disease.

Absent growth hormone response to L-tryptophan in acromegaly

In acromegaly, regulation of GH secretion by dopamine pathways appears to be qualitatively abnormal. To determine whether regulation of GH secretion by serotonin pathways is also abnormal in acromegaly, we administered L-tryptophan (5 g orally), the initial precursor of serotonin, to 10 patients with active acromegaly (9 treated and 1 untreated), 3 patients with cured acromegaly, and 8 normal subjects. The normal group showed a significant (P less than 0.05) increase in serum GH after L-tryptophan [peak value, 12.3 +/- 4.0 (se) ng/ml], though the magnitude of the response was highly variable. In contrast, subjects with active acromegaly did not show an increase in serum GH after L-tryptophan [mean integrated percentage change in serum GH, -25 +/- 25% (SE); P = NS]. One patient whose acromegaly had been surgically cured did show a GH rise after L-tryptophan. In acromegaly, the GH response to L-tryptophan is absent, suggesting that regulation of GH secretion by serotonin pathways might be qualitatively abnormal.

Acromegaly and the heart. An echocardiographic study

Twenty-seven patients with acromegaly had echocardiograms performed to delineate the ventricular septum, left ventricular posterior wall and mitral valve. Left ventricular function was assessed by calculating the systolic internal dimensional shortening of the left ventricle. Six patients met the criteria for asymmetric septal hypertrophy and eight had concentric left ventricular hypertrophy. The remaining 13 patients were categorized as "normal," although six had septal measurements greater than 11 mm. The group with asymmetric septal hypertrophy had significantly greater percentage of internal dimensional shortening during systole than either the normal group (p less than 0.05) or the group with left ventricular hypertrophy (p less than 0.01). Initial mean growth hormone levels were considerably higher in the group with left ventricular hypertrophy than in the normal group (93 versus 34 ng/ml). Thus, echocardiographic abnormalities are common in acromegaly, and patients with asymmetric septal hypertrophy and acromegaly appear to have significantly increased ventricular ejection. Many of the patients with left ventricular hypertrophy have no evidence of clinical cardiovascular disease, and their left ventricular hypertrophy may be related to higher initial growth hormone levels.

The syndrome of basal encephalocele and hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction

We documented hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction in three patients with congenital herniation of the brain through the base of the skull (basal encephalocele). All had growth hormone deficiency, although one has attained normal height. One had diabetes insipidus. Two had hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Prolactin secretion was elevated in one, normal in another, and borderline low in the third. Two patients were euthyroid, but in response to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) injection, one patient's thyrotropin (TSH) level increased to levels exceeding normal while the other's did not attain normal levels. In the third patient, TSH response to TRH went from subnormal to normal after treatment with growth hormone and thyroxine. No patient had evidence of ACTH deficiency. These heterogeneous findings do not permit assignment of an unequivocal anatomic or functional site to the endocrine defect(s). Pituitary function should be evaluated in all patients with basal encephalocele, and this entity should be considered in the differential diagnosis of central endocrine malfunction.

Parameters of thyroid function in patients with active acromegaly

In order to determine if acromegaly per se may be associated with abnormalities in thyroidal economy, serum thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), resin T3 uptake, total and free T4, T3, and reverse T3 concentrations were measured in 21 patients with active acromegaly. Mean (+/- SE) total T4, T3, and reverse T3 levels were 7.1 +/- 0.2 microgram/dl, 111 +/- 4 ng/dl, and 45 +/- 2 ng/dl, respectively, and the mean TBG concentration was 3.6 +/- 0.2 mg/dl. Similarly, mean free T4, T3, and reverse T3 concentrations were 2.4 +/- 0.09 ng/dl, 383 +/- 22 pg/dl, and 118 +/- 7 pg/dl, respectively. None of these values is significantly different from normal and the thyrotropin response to thyrotropin-releasing hormone was also normal. In contrast to several earlier reports, these data suggest that parameters of thyroid function are generally normal in patients with active acromegaly.

Comparison of clofibrate and chlorpropamide in vasopressin-responsive diabetes insipidus

Six patients with vasopressin-responsive diabetes insipidus (DI) received clofibrate and chlorpropamide, singly and in combination. Decrease in urinary output averaged (mean +/- SEM): (1) clofibrate 2 g/day, 47% +/- 6%; (2) chlorpropamide 250 mg/day 59% +/- 5%; (3) clofibrate 2 g/day plus chlorpropamide 125 mg/day, 54% +/- 7%; (4) clofibrate 2 g/day plus chlorpropamide 250 mg/day 61% +/- 4%. Water deprivation tests before and during treatment showed significantly higher basal, final, and peak urinary osmolalities (Uosm) and lower free water clearance (CH20) on chlorpropamide, singly and in combination: clofibrate raised Uosm less but significantly decreased CH2O. Water load tests before and during treatment showed that chlorpropamide, singly and in combination, markedly decreased maximal urinary flow, maximal CH2O, percentage water load excreted, and increased minimal Uosm; clofibrate significantly decreased maximal urinary flow and CH2O only. One patient responded only to combination therapy. Chlorporpamide caused serious hypoglycemia in three of six patients. Clofibrate had no significant side effects.