First-in-human liver transplantation from a centenarian deceased donor after brain death

Liver transplantation from elderly donors is expanding due to demand for liver grafts, aging of recipients and donors, and introduction of machine perfusion. We report on a liver transplant from a 100-year-old deceased donor after brain death. The liver was transplanted after the use of hypothermic machine perfusion to a 60-year-old recipient with advanced hepatocellular carcinoma undergoing neoadjuvant immunotherapy. Nine months after the transplant, the patient is alive with a functioning graft and no evidence of acute rejection or tumor recurrence.

Real-world analysis of the economic and therapeutic burden in advanced breast cancer patients in Italy

BACKGROUND

This real-world analysis evaluated drug utilization focusing on wastage and healthcare costs for treatment of patients with advanced breast cancer (aBC) hormone receptor-positive (HR+)/human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 negative (HER2-) in Italy.

METHODS

A retrospective analysis was conducted on administrative data covering about 13.3 million health-assisted individuals. Across January/2017-June/2021, all patients with HR+/HER2-aBC were identified by ≥ 1 prescription for cyclin-dependent kinase 4/6 inhibitors (CDK 4/6i). Cost analysis was performed and updated referring to the prices of November 2021.

RESULTS

Overall, 3,647 HR+/HER2-aBC patients were included (2,627 palbociclib treated, 729 ribociclib treated, and 291 abemaciclib treated). After 12 months of follow-up, 35% of palbociclib patients had a dose reduction (on average 8.9 wasted pills/patient), 44.7% of abemaciclib patients had a dose reduction (on average 6.7 wasted pills/patient), 22.1% of ribociclib patients had a dose reduction (no wasted pills). Therapy wastage added up to 528,716€ for palbociclib-treated patients (524€/patient) and 5,738€ in abemaciclib-treated patients (151€/patient). No wastage was attributed to ribociclib.

CONCLUSIONS

Dose reduction was associated with drug wastage in palbociclib and abemaciclib-treated patients, but not in ribociclib-treated ones. These findings might be helpful to policy decision-makers who, for healthcare strategies implementation, among several variables should consider the possible restraining of drug wastage.

Improved Constraints on Primordial Gravitational Waves using Planck, WMAP, and BICEP/Keck Observations through the 2018 Observing Season

We present results from an analysis of all data taken by the BICEP2, Keck Array, and BICEP3 CMB polarization experiments up to and including the 2018 observing season. We add additional Keck Array observations at 220 GHz and BICEP3 observations at 95 GHz to the previous 95/150/220  GHz dataset. The Q/U maps now reach depths of 2.8, 2.8, and 8.8  μK_{CMB} arcmin at 95, 150, and 220 GHz, respectively, over an effective area of ≈600 square degrees at 95 GHz and ≈400 square degrees at 150 and 220 GHz. The 220 GHz maps now achieve a signal-to-noise ratio on polarized dust emission exceeding that of Planck at 353 GHz. We take auto- and cross-spectra between these maps and publicly available WMAP and Planck maps at frequencies from 23 to 353 GHz and evaluate the joint likelihood of the spectra versus a multicomponent model of lensed ΛCDM+r+dust+synchrotron+noise. The foreground model has seven parameters, and no longer requires a prior on the frequency spectral index of the dust emission taken from measurements on other regions of the sky. This model is an adequate description of the data at the current noise levels. The likelihood analysis yields the constraint r_{0.05}<0.036 at 95% confidence. Running maximum likelihood search on simulations we obtain unbiased results and find that σ(r)=0.009. These are the strongest constraints to date on primordial gravitational waves.

Constraints on Primordial Gravitational Waves Using Planck, WMAP, and New BICEP2/Keck Observations through the 2015 Season

We present results from an analysis of all data taken by the bicep2/Keck CMB polarization experiments up to and including the 2015 observing season. This includes the first Keck Array observations at 220 GHz and additional observations at 95 and 150 GHz. The Q and U maps reach depths of 5.2, 2.9, and 26  μK_{CMB} arcmin at 95, 150, and 220 GHz, respectively, over an effective area of ≈400 square degrees. The 220 GHz maps achieve a signal to noise on polarized dust emission approximately equal to that of Planck at 353 GHz. We take auto and cross spectra between these maps and publicly available WMAP and Planck maps at frequencies from 23 to 353 GHz. We evaluate the joint likelihood of the spectra versus a multicomponent model of lensed-ΛCDM+r+dust+synchrotron+noise. The foreground model has seven parameters, and we impose priors on some of these using external information from Planck and WMAP derived from larger regions of sky. The model is shown to be an adequate description of the data at the current noise levels. The likelihood analysis yields the constraint r_{0.05}<0.07 at 95% confidence, which tightens to r_{0.05}<0.06 in conjunction with Planck temperature measurements and other data. The lensing signal is detected at 8.8σ significance. Running a maximum likelihood search on simulations we obtain unbiased results and find that σ(r)=0.020. These are the strongest constraints to date on primordial gravitational waves.

Utility of Computed Tomography versus Abdominal Ultrasound Examination to Identify Iliosacral Lymphadenomegaly in Dogs with Apocrine Gland Adenocarcinoma of the Anal Sac

Background

Apocrine gland adenocarcinoma of the anal sac (AGAAS) is associated with high rates of iliosacral lymph node metastasis, which may influence treatment and prognosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) recently has been shown to be more sensitive than abdominal ultrasound examination (AUS) in affected patients.

Objective

To compare the rate of detection of iliosacral lymphadenomegaly between AUS and computed tomography (CT) in dogs with AGAAS.

Animals

Cohort A: A total of 30 presumed normal dogs. Cohort B: A total of 20 dogs with AGAAS that underwent AUS and CT.

Methods

Using cohort A, mean normalized lymph node : aorta (LN : AO) ratios were established for medial iliac, internal iliac, and sacral lymph nodes. The CT images in cohort B then were reviewed retrospectively and considered enlarged if their LN : AO ratio measured 2 standard deviations above the mean normalized ratio for that particular node in cohort A. Classification and visibility of lymph nodes identified on AUS were compared to corresponding measurements obtained on CT.

Results

Computed tomography identified lymphadenomegaly in 13 of 20 AGAAS dogs. Of these 13 dogs, AUS correctly identified and detected all enlarged nodes in only 30.8%, and either misidentified or failed to detect additional enlarged nodes in the remaining dogs. Despite limitations in identifying enlargement in all affected lymph nodes, AUS identified at least 1 enlarged node in 100% of affected dogs.

Conclusion and Clinical Importance

Abdominal ultrasound examination is an effective screening test for lymphadenomegaly in dogs with AGAAS, but CT should be considered in any patient in which an additional metastatic site would impact therapeutic planning.

Laparoscopic robot-assisted versus open total pancreatectomy: a case-matched study

BACKGROUND

The enhanced dexterity offered by robotic assistance could be excessive for distal pancreatectomy but not enough to improve the outcome of laparoscopic pancreaticoduodenectomy. Total pancreatectomy retains the challenges of uncinate process dissection and digestive reconstruction, but avoids the risk of pancreatic fistula, and could be a suitable operation to highlight the advantages of robotic assistance in pancreatic resections.

METHODS

Eleven laparoscopic robot-assisted total pancreatectomies (LRATP) were compared to 11 case-matched open total pancreatectomies. All operations were performed by one surgeon during the same period of time. Robotic assistance was employed in half of the patients, based on robot availability at the time of surgery. Variables examined included age, sex, American Society of Anesthesiologists score, body mass index, estimated blood loss, need for blood transfusions, operative time, tumor type, tumor size, number of examined lymph nodes, margin status, post-operative complications, 90-day or in-hospital mortality, length of hospital stay, and readmission rate.

RESULTS

No LRATP was converted to conventional laparoscopy, hand-assisted laparoscopy or open surgery despite two patients (18.1 %) required vein resection and reconstruction. LRATP was associated with longer mean operative time (600 vs. 469 min; p = 0.014) but decreased mean blood loss (220 vs. 705; p = 0.004) than open surgery. Post-operative complications occurred in similar percentages after LRATP and open surgery. Complications occurring in most patients (5/7) after LRATP were of mild severity (Clavien-Dindo grade I and II). One patient required repeat laparoscopic surgery after LRATP, to drain a fluid collection not amenable to percutaneous catheter drainage. One further patient from the open group required repeat surgery because of bleeding. No patient had margin positive resection, and the mean number of examined lymph nodes was 45 after LRATP and 36 after open surgery.

CONCLUSIONS

LRATP is feasible in selected patients, but further experience is needed to draw final conclusions.

Operative time and postoperative pain following minimally invasive video-assisted parathyroidectomy

BACKGROUND

Mininvasive surgical techniques have been proposed to treat the patients affected by parathyroid adenoma starting by endoscopically-assisted parathyroidectomy up to video-assisted and radio-guided approaches.

PATIENTS AND METHODS

Our technique, minimally invasive video-assisted parathyroidectomy (MIVAP), in accord with Miccoli's technique, has been introduced in our center since 2006 after extensive experience with MIVAT (minimally invasive videoassisted thyroidectomy). From September 2006 to October 2008 we performed 32 MIVAP on 32 patients, 21 female and 11 males with a mean age of 53.4 years (range 25-77) affected by parathyroid adenoma. Patients have been divided in two groups in chronological order: Group A included the first 15 patients, Group B the second ones.

RESULTS

Mean operative time from incision to skin closure has been 47.4+/-14.2 minutes for group A and 34+/-10.3 minutes for group B (p<0.01). Postoperative pain, scored from 0 to 10 evaluated at time 0 and after 24 hours from the procedure, has been of 2.6+/-0.5 and 1.4+/-0.5 in group A (p<0.001) while in group B of 2.58+/-0.51 and 1.16+/-0.38 (p<0.001) respectively. The difference in postoperative pain was not significant between the two groups and the pain was controlled by the administration of paracetamol 1 g. On the other side, the comparison between postoperative pain in patients operated via traditional bilateral cervical exploration and MIVAP (2.61+/-0.5 vs 3.55+/-0.51 and 1.38+/-0.5 vs 2.16+/-0.61 at 0 and 24 hours respectively), was statistically significant (p<0.001) and in favour of MIVAP.

CONCLUSIONS

We showed a shorter operative time between the A group and B group. 15 cases are sufficient as good learning curve if the surgeon is experienced in videoassisted neck procedure. The postoperative pain is lower in videoassisted procedure than cervical bilateral approach.

Can we use ionized calcium in the evaluation of post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia?

AIM

The postoperative hypocalcaemia has the higher incidence as complications related to thyroidectomy.

METHODS

From 1 June 2006 to 30 June 2008, we examined 492 patients operated on consecutively in our unit with a total thyroidectomy for thyroid disease. We evaluated the values of ionized calcium in all the cases, matching these with the preoperative and postoperative values of serum calcium. The pre- and postoperative (24 hours after treatment) data for ionized calcium and serum calcium were examined statistically with the Student's t-test; results with a P-value <0.05 were considered to be statistically significant.

RESULTS

Two-hundred-and-twenty-three of the 492 patients (45.2%) treated with total thyroidectomy had preoperative values of ionized calcium lower than 1.13 mmol/L (normal values 1.13-1.32 mmol/L), while the ionized calcium values were lower than 1.10 mmol/L in 154 of the 223 patients. The mean value of ionized calcium in all 223 cases was 1.04+/-0.07 mmol/L. The mean serum calcium value in these patients was 9.13+/-0.291 mg/dL (normal values 8.3-10.5 mg/dL). In the other 259 cases, the values of ionized calcium and serum calcium were 1.21+/-0.03 mmol/L and 9.1+/-0.29 mg/dL, respectively. In 75 cases on 223 with symptomatic hypocalcemia, the mean value of ionized calcium was 0.88+/-0.05 mmol/L, while, in the remaining 148 cases, the mean value was equal to 0.97+/-0.08 mmol/L (P<0.001). We compared this, in both groups, with the values of postoperative serum calcium; in the 75 cases with clinical hypocalcemia, the value of serum calcium was 7.32+/-0.35 mg/dL, while the value was equal to 8.4+/-0.34 mg/dL in the other cases (P<0.001).

CONCLUSIONS

The values of ionized calcium must not be used as marker of hypocalcemia but must be seen as a diagnostic aid linked to others laboratory values, such as serum calcium.

Rapid identification of fungi by sequencing the ITS1 and ITS2 regions using an automated capillary electrophoresis system

We developed a standardized DNA sequence-based approach for the accurate and timely identification of medically important fungi by sequencing polymerase chain reaction (PCR) products with a rapid automated capillary electrophoresis system. A simple DNA extraction method and PCR amplification using universal fungal primers was used to amplify ribosomal DNA from a range of clinical isolates and reference strains. The entire internal transcribed spacer (ITS) 1-5.8S-ITS2 ribosomal DNA region was sequenced using automated dye termination sequencing for 89 clinical isolates. These had previously been identified by traditional methods and included 12 ascomycetous yeast species, three basidiomycetous yeast species, eight dermatophyte species and two thermally dimorphic fungi, Scedosporium prolificans and S. apiospermum. Furthermore, 21 reference strains representing 19 different Candida species, Geotrichum candidum and Malassezia furfur were also sequenced as part of this study and were used either as standards for sequence-based comparisons, or as assay controls. Sequence-based identification was compared to traditional identification in a blinded manner. Of the clinical isolates tested, 88/89 had DNA sequences that were highly homologous to those of reference strains accessioned in GenBank, and 87/89 gave a sequence-based identification result that correlated with the traditional identification. In contrast to relatively slow conventional methods of identification, a sequence-based identification from a pure culture can be obtained within 24 h of a DNA extraction carried out after a minimal period of culture growth. We conclude that this approach is rapid, and may be a more accurate cost-effective alternative than most phenotypic methods for identification of many medically important fungi frequently encountered in a routine diagnostic microbiology laboratory.

Differences between the quantitative antigenemia assay and the cobas amplicor monitor quantitative PCR assay for detecting CMV viraemia in bone marrow and solid organ transplant patients

The relationship between quantitative PCR (COBAS Amplicor CMV Monitor, Roche Diagnostics) and quantitative antigenemia (Monofluor pp65, Sanofi Diagnostics) was examined for monitoring CMV viraemia. A total of 469 specimens from immunocompromised haematology and solid organ transplant patients were tested by quantitative antigenemia and qualitative PCR. Quantitative PCR (QPCR) was performed on the 245 specimens in which CMV DNA was detected by qualitative PCR. To exclude any effect due to specific anti-CMV treatment, analysis of antigenemia and QPCR results was only performed on the 164 of 245 specimens collected from patients not on ganciclovir or foscarnet treatment. Forty seven specimens had <400 CMV copies/mL and a negative antigen result, four specimens were antigen positive (all between 1 to 10 positive CMV cells/2 x 10(5) leucocytes) and had <400 CMV copies/mL. Fifty-one specimens had a CMV viral load > or = 400 copies/mL and a negative antigen result and 62 specimens had a CMV viral load > or = 400 copies/mL and a positive antigen. The viral load was shown to be as high as 43,000 copies/mL in some patients with a negative antigen and occurred in non-neutropenic patients. The correlation coefficient for antigen and QPCR results for specimens from bone marrow transplant patients, was 0.69 with an average CMV viral load of 3,200 copies/mL (SEM = 800) and an average antigen of nine positive CMV cells/2 x 10(5) leucocytes (SEM = 3). In the corresponding solid organ transplant group, the correlation coefficient for antigen and QPCR results was 0.71 with an average CMV viral load of 9,900 copies/mL (SEM = 2,100) and an average antigen of 26 positive CMV cells/2 x 10(5) leucocytes (SEM = 6). Both the average viral load and the average antigen result in specimens from solid organ transplant patients, were significantly higher than the average viral load and antigen result in the corresponding group of bone marrow transplant patients (Two-Sample-for-Means z-Test, P = 0.001 and P = 0.003, respectively). The differences in the kinetics of the two assays in monitoring CMV and their ability to predict CMV disease was also assessed in a sub-group of patients. In conclusion, the two assays used in this study do not always show parallel changes in CMV viral load, but may be complementary for the diagnosis and management of CMV disease. The observation that non-neutropenic patients can have a high viral load in plasma and a negative antigenemia has implications for laboratories using antigenemia alone to monitor patients for CMV disease.

Use of real-time PCR and the LightCycler system for the rapid detection of Pneumocystis carinii in respiratory specimens

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) remains a major cause of morbidity and mortality in immunocompromised patients, including those infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The advent of real-time PCR technology offers the potential for rapid PCR results for the detection of P. carinii. In this report we describe the modification and evaluation of an existing PCR-based method for the detection of P. carinii DNA, into a real-time PCR assay suitable for use with the LightCycler system. Twenty eight induced sputum and bronchial washing specimens from 28 patients were tested by both a conventional PCR assay and a real-time PCR assay. Twelve specimens (42.9%) were positive in both the conventional and real-time PCR assays and sixteen (57.1%) were negative in both assays. The melting points of the amplified P. carinii DNA product obtained by melting curve analysis by the LightCycler of all P. carinii positive specimens ranged from 81.5 degrees C to 83.9 degrees C. There were no discordant results between the two assays for any of the specimens tested and results were available within 2 h for the real-time PCR assay compared to up to 11 h for the conventional PCR assay.

Preliminary results on Digenea found in fishes in the coastal waters of Terra Nova Bay, Antarctica

A list of fish parasites (Digenea) from the coastal waters of Terra Nova Bay (Ross Sea, Antarctica) concerns 10 identified species, namely Macvicaria pennelli, Neolebouria terranovaensis, Helicometra pisanoae, Lepidapedon balgueriasi, L. garradi, Genolinea bowersi, Derogenes johnstoni, Gonocerca phycidis, Elytrophalloides oatesi, Lecithaster macrocotyle, 1 genus Aporocotyle sp. and one specimen undetermined. The total number of species known from the Ross Sea increased from 9 to 12. This number is smaller than those of other Antarctic areas, such as Western Antarctic and Weddell Sea where more extensive investigations were carried out to date.

Diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genitourinary infections in males by the Amplicor PCR assay of urine

The Amplicor CT/NG polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test on urine specimens from males was prospectively evaluated against established specimens and laboratory methods for diagnosing Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae genitourinary infections, in patients from a remote region of Western Australia. Seventy-three males who were tested for both C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae by both conventional methodology and Amplicor PCR on urine were enrolled in the study. Established testing comprised enzyme immunoassay/immunofluorescence antigen testing (EIA/IF) for C. trachomatis and microscopy and/or culture for N. gonorrhoeae on urethral swabs. Positive test results were confirmed using a set of criteria that included supplemental PCR testing and clinical history. Overall, 13.7% of patients were resolved as positive for C. trachomatis and 52.1% as positive for N. gonorrhoeae. The sensitivity and specificity of the Amplicor CT/NG PCR on male urine specimens for C. trachomatis were 80.0% (8/10) and 95.2% (60/63), compared with 60.0% (6/10) and 100.0% (63/63) for EIA/IF on urethral swabs. For N. gonorrhoeae, the sensitivity and specificity of the Amplicor CT/NG PCR on male urine specimens were both 100% (38/38 and 35/35, respectively) compared with 86.8% (33/38) and 100% (35/35) for microscopy and/or culture on urethral swabs. The results of this study indicate that the Amplicor CT/NG multiplex PCR test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae performed on urine in males provides a highly sensitive, specific, and robust method for the diagnosis of both C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae, for the early detection of both symptomatic and asymptomatic infected individuals.

Evaluation of a commercial polymerase chain reaction assay for the detection of Chlamydia trachomatis

Cell culture has traditionally been considered the most sensitive method for detecting Chlamydia trachomatis from clinical specimens, but depends upon the organisms being viable at the time of cell inoculation. Furthermore, cell culture is slow and labor intensive. Even when a special transport medium is used, there is a progressive loss of viability of C. trachomatis during transport. The detection of C. trachomatis by cell culture is more rapid when immunofluorescence is used to detect early antigen, but requires considerable experience to interpret. The Amplicor C. trachomatis system is a commercial polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based assay combined with nucleic acid hybridization for the direct detection of C. trachomatis in urine and swabs of appropriate sites, with results available within 6 h. All specimens for C. trachomatis received by the Royal Perth Hospital Department of Microbiology during the period 1 July 1994 to 30 June 1995 that were suitable for culture and Amplicor PCR were tested by both methods (2029 specimens). Discordant results were obtained in nine cases and resolved by additional testing. Seventy-one specimens were confirmed as true positives, of these Amplicor PCR correctly detected 67 (sensitivity 94.4%) and culture correctly detected 62 (sensitivity 87.3%). The Amplicor PCR assay was found to be more sensitive and as specific as culture. It had the added advantages of ease of use, rapid availability of results, standardization and was more suited than culture to processing large number of specimens.

Hepatitis C genotypes in Australian haemophilia patients

BACKGROUND

Differences in the hepatitis C virus (HCV) genotype influence the severity of HCV related liver disease and response to interferon therapy. HCV infection is frequent in Australian haemophilia patients who have been exposed repeatedly to multiple HCV genotypes through non HCV virally inactivated clotting factor concentrates. The distribution of the various HCV genotypes in Australian haemophilia patients is unknown.

AIM

To examine the HCV genotype distribution and clinical features of HCV associated liver disease in Australian haemophilia patients.

METHODS

Forty patients with bleeding disorders who were known to be both HCV antibody and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) positive were evaluated by direct sequencing of the PCR products for the HCV genotype.

RESULTS

Genotype 1 was found in 65% of patients (26/40), type 2 in 5% (2/40) and type 3 in 30% (12/40). No genotypes 4 to 6 were found. There was no association between the HCV genotype and the severity of haemophilia, alanine transaminase levels, or the presence of portal hypertension. Unlike European, Asian and American studies where the majority of type 1 infection is subclass 1b, in Australian haemophilia patients it is subclass 1a (73%-19/26) which may have a better prognosis and response to interferon.

CONCLUSIONS

Despite patients with haemophilia being exposed to multiple HCV genotypes, it appears that there is no selection advantage of one genotype over another. Australian haemophilia patients with HCV have a different genotype distribution to that reported in other countries and care should be observed in interpreting non Australian studies concerning HCV.

Catheter-related septicemia caused by a vancomycin-resistant Coryneform CDC group A-5

A case of catheter-related septicemia, due to Coryneform CDC group A-5, in an 11 yr old boy with acute myelomonocytic leukemia is discussed. The child failed to respond to initial antibiotic therapy, even following the addition of vancomycin. Laboratory studies later showed the organism to be vancomycin resistant but cefotaxime susceptible.

P-nitrophenylglycerol in susceptibility testing media alters the MICs of antimicrobials for Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Diagnostic microbiology laboratories in Australia and the UK commonly incorporate p-nitrophenylglycerol (PNPG) into solid susceptibility testing media in order to prevent the swarming of Proteus spp. We have investigated the effects of PNPG and adjusting the cation concentrations of the media to physiological levels on the MICs of aminoglycosides and other antibiotics for 128 strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa isolated from the sputa of children with cystic fibrosis. The addition of PNPG to the media led to higher MICs of gentamicin and tobramycin for up to 23% of the isolates. Depending on the base medium, supplementation with the cations, calcium and magnesium, also increased the MICs of these aminoglycosides for 12-27% of the strains tested. Both incorporation of PNPG and cation adjustment led to higher MICs for 25-53% of isolates, again depending on the base medium. The MICs of ticarcillin, ciprofloxacin and colistin (on Iso-Sensitest agar) for significant numbers of strains were lower in the presence of PNPG, while those of ceftazidime varied from higher to lower, according to the concentration of the drug and the base medium. In many instances these changes would have altered the way in which the susceptibilities of the organisms would have been reported. PNPG clearly exerts an important effect when the in-vitro activities of various antibiotics against P. aeruginosa are determined by the agar dilution method. Recommendations for the inclusion of PNPG in susceptibility testing media should therefore be reviewed.

Comparison of the RIM-H rapid identification kit with conventional tests for the identification of Haemophilus spp

A commercially available system, the RIM-H system (Austin Biological Laboratories, Austin, Tex.), was evaluated for its ability to rapidly and accurately identify various Haemophilus spp. A total of 110 clinical isolates were tested by both the RIM and conventional identification procedures. The RIM agreed with the standard identification for 100% of the Haemophilus influenzae (76 of 76) and 92.0% of the Haemophilus parainfluenzae (23 of 25) isolates tested. The identifications of Haemophilus parahaemolyticus, Haemophilus aphrophilus, and Haemophilus haemolyticus also correlated with those obtained by conventional methods. The RIM was found to be rapid and easy to use and was considered a suitable alternative to conventional identification procedures.