1219 Patient Satisfaction with Virtual Orthopaedic Clinics During the COVID-19 Pandemic

Background

The COVID-19 pandemic has elicited the need to deliver consultation appointments remotely due to social-distancing measures, as well as some individuals having to shield. Virtual clinics are not a familiar setting for orthopaedic surgeons or their patients, but it is a necessity in the current climate and potentially also in the future.

Aim

This study aims to determine patient satisfaction of virtual orthopaedic consultations, during the COVID-19 pandemic and for the future.

Method

A 10-question survey assessed the satisfaction level of both new and follow-up patients towards virtual clinics for consultations with orthopaedic surgeons.

Results

Based on 100 patients who completed the surveys in a 6-month study during the pandemic, it was found that a majority (90%) of patients reported being satisfied (either very satisfied or satisfied) with the telephone clinics and would be content on having virtual clinics in the future.

Conclusions

Many patients view virtual clinics as an acceptable substitute for face-to-face appointments, specifically during the pandemic. However, it was also reported that a majority of patients would still prefer a physical examination as well. If virtual consultations are to persist beyond the COVID-19 pandemic, further exploration would need to be carried out to determine the efficacy.

Changes in patient-reported outcomes (PROs) and tumor markers (TMs) to predict treatment response and survival in patients with metastatic gastrointestinal (GI) cancer

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Background: PROs assessing quality of life (QOL) and symptoms at a single timepoint frequently correlate with clinical outcomes in patients with cancer, yet efforts to understand how longitudinal changes in PROs can predict for treatment outcomes are lacking. In practice, oncologists often use changes in serum TMs (CEA and CA19-9) to monitor patients with GI cancer, and thus we sought to examine associations of 1-month changes in PROs and TMs with treatment response and survival outcomes among patients with advanced GI cancer. Methods: We prospectively enrolled patients with metastatic GI cancer prior to initiating chemotherapy at Massachusetts General Hospital from 5/2019-12/2020. At baseline (start of treatment) and 1-month later, we collected PROs (QOL [Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy General {FACT-G}], physical symptoms [Edmonton Symptom Assessment System {ESAS}], and psychological symptoms [Patient Health Questionnaire-4 {PHQ-4}]) and TMs. We used regression models to examine associations of 1-month changes in PROs and TMs with treatment response (clinical benefit [defined as decreased or stable tumor burden] or progressive disease at the time of first scan) and survival outcomes (progression-free survival [PFS] and overall survival [OS]), adjusted for baseline values of each respective variable. Results: We enrolled 159 of 191 patients approached (83.2% enrollment); 134 had 1-month follow-up data (median age = 64 years [range: 28 to 84 years], 64.2% male, 46.3% pancreaticobiliary cancer). For treatment response, 63.4% had clinical benefit and 36.6% had progressive disease at the time of first scan (mean time to first scan = 2.01 months). Changes in PROs (ESAS-Total: OR = 0.97, p = 0.022; ESAS-Physical: OR = 0.96, p = 0.027; PHQ-4 depression: OR = 0.67, p = 0.014; FACT-G: OR = 1.07, p = 0.001), but not TMs (CEA: OR = 1.00, p = 0.836 and CA19-9: OR = 1.00, p = 0.796), were associated with clinical benefit at the time of first scan. Changes in ESAS-Total (HR = 1.03, p = 0.004), ESAS-Physical (HR = 1.03, p = 0.021), PHQ-4 depression (HR = 1.22, p = 0.042), FACT-G (HR = 0.97, p = 0.003), and CEA (HR = 1.00, p = 0.001) were predictors of PFS. Changes in ESAS-Total (HR = 1.03, p = 0.006) and ESAS-Physical (HR = 1.04, p = 0.015) were predictors of OS, but 1-month changes in TMs (CEA: HR = 1.00, p = 0.377 and CA19-9: HR = 1.00, p = 0.367) did not significantly predict for OS. Conclusions: We found that 1-month changes in PROs can predict for treatment response and survival outcomes in patients with advanced GI cancers. Notably, 1-month changes in CEA only correlated with PFS, while changes in CA19-9 did not significantly predict treatment response or survival outcomes. These findings highlight the potential for early changes in PROs to predict treatment outcomes while underscoring the need to monitor and address PROs in patients with advanced cancer. Clinical trial information: NCT04776837.

[Telemedicine in stroke-pertinent to stroke care in Germany]

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVE

Telemedical stroke networks improve stroke care and provide access to time-dependent acute stroke treatment in predominantly rural regions. The aim is a presentation of data on its utility and regional distribution.

METHODS

The working group on telemedical stroke care of the German Stroke Society performed a survey study among all telestroke networks.

RESULTS

Currently, 22 telemedical stroke networks including 43 centers (per network: median 1.5, interquartile range, IQR, 1-3) as well as 225 cooperating hospitals (per network: median 9, IQR 4-17) operate in Germany and contribute to acute stroke care delivery to 48 million people. In 2018, 38,211 teleconsultations (per network: median 1340, IQR 319-2758) were performed. The thrombolysis rate was 14.1% (95% confidence interval 13.6-14.7%) and transfer for thrombectomy was initiated in 7.9% (95% confidence interval 7.5-8.4%) of ischemic stroke patients. Financial reimbursement differs regionally with compensation for telemedical stroke care in only three federal states.

CONCLUSION

Telemedical stroke care is utilized in about 1 out of 10 stroke patients in Germany. Telemedical stroke networks achieve similar rates of thrombolysis and transfer for thrombectomy compared with neurological stroke units and contribute to stroke care in rural regions. Standardization of network structures, financial assurance and uniform quality measurements may further strengthen the importance of telestroke networks in the future.

Changes in patient-reported outcomes (PROs) and tumor markers (TMs) to predict treatment response and survival outcomes in patients with metastatic gastrointestinal (GI) cancer

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Background: PROs assessing quality of life (QOL) and symptoms at a single timepoint frequently correlate with clinical outcomes in patients with cancer, yet efforts to understand how longitudinal changes in PROs can predict for treatment outcomes are lacking. In practice, oncologists often use changes in serum TMs (CEA and CA19-9) to monitor patients with GI cancer, and thus we sought to examine associations of 1-month changes in PROs and TMs with treatment response and survival outcomes among patients with advanced GI cancer. Methods: We prospectively enrolled patients with metastatic GI cancer prior to initiating chemotherapy at Massachusetts General Hospital from 5/2019-12/2020. At baseline (start of treatment) and 1-month later, we collected PROs (QOL [Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy General {FACT-G}], physical symptoms [Edmonton Symptom Assessment System {ESAS}], and psychological symptoms [Patient Health Questionnaire-4 {PHQ-4}]) and TMs. We used regression models to examine associations of 1-month changes in PROs and TMs with treatment response (clinical benefit [defined as decreased or stable tumor burden] or progressive disease at the time of first scan) and survival outcomes (progression-free survival [PFS] and overall survival [OS]), adjusted for baseline values of each respective variable. Results: We enrolled 159 of 191 patients approached (83.2% enrollment); 134 had 1-month follow-up data (median age = 64 years [range: 28 to 84 years], 64.2% male, 46.3% pancreaticobiliary cancer). For treatment response, 63.4% had clinical benefit and 36.6% had progressive disease at the time of first scan (mean time to first scan = 2.01 months). Changes in PROs (ESAS-Total: OR = 0.97, p = 0.022; ESAS-Physical: OR = 0.96, p = 0.027; PHQ-4 depression: OR = 0.67, p = 0.014; FACT-G: OR = 1.07, p = 0.001), but not TMs (CEA: OR = 1.00, p = 0.836 and CA19-9: OR = 1.00, p = 0.796), were associated with clinical benefit at the time of first scan. Changes in ESAS-Total (HR = 1.03, p = 0.004), ESAS-Physical (HR = 1.03, p = 0.021), PHQ-4 depression (HR = 1.22, p = 0.042), FACT-G (HR = 0.97, p = 0.003), and CEA (HR = 1.00, p = 0.001) were predictors of PFS. Changes in ESAS-Total (HR = 1.03, p = 0.006) and ESAS-Physical (HR = 1.04, p = 0.015) were predictors of OS, but 1-month changes in TMs (CEA: HR = 1.00, p = 0.377 and CA19-9: HR = 1.00, p = 0.367) did not significantly predict for OS. Conclusions: We found that 1-month changes in PROs can predict for treatment response and survival outcomes in patients with advanced GI cancers. Notably, 1-month changes in CEA only correlated with PFS, while changes in CA19-9 did not significantly predict treatment response or survival outcomes. These findings highlight the potential for early changes in PROs to predict treatment outcomes while underscoring the need to monitor and address PROs in patients with advanced cancer.

The Double Burden of COVID-19 and Dengue in Nepal: The challenges ahead

Coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) pandemic has caused significant impact on the health care system. As a consequence, diagnosis and treatment of vector borne diseases including dengue has been equally affected. Nepal is no exception to this, where COVID-19 cases is exponentially increased and all resources are concentrated on its prevention, control and management. Dengue, one of the major vector-borne diseases in Nepal, is apparently overlooked despite approaching the peak season of the disease. The aim of this paper is to describe the double burden of COVID-19 and dengue in Nepal, particularly highlighting the co-circulation and possible coinfections. This has posed higher risk of increased severity, more severe cases and deaths in Nepal. Moreover, potential misdiagnosis of these viral diseases may lead to delayed or, inappropriate treatment and poor allocation of resources.

0923 Doxepin in Children and Adolescents With Symptoms of Insomnia: A Single Center Experience

Introduction

Pediatric insomnia is a widespread problem and especially difficult to manage in children with neurodevelopmental disorders. There are currently no FDA- approved medications for pediatric patients to use once first line therapy fails. Doxepin is FDA-approved at low doses for use in transient or chronic sleep maintenance insomnia in adults. The objective of this study is to determine the tolerability and efficacy of doxepin in the pediatric population.

Methods

This is a retrospective single center chart review of children and adolescents (2-17 years of age) whose sleep failed to improve with behavioral intervention and melatonin who were then trialed on doxepin. Treatment was initiated at a median starting dose of 2mg and slowly escalated to a median maintenance dose of 10mg. Improvement in sleep was recorded using a 4-point Likert scale reported by parents on follow up visits.

Results

Total of 29 patients were included in analysis. Mean follow-up duration was 6.5 months (±3.5). Out of 29 patients, 4 (13.8%) patients discontinued doxepin due to lack of efficacy or side effects. 8 (27.6%) patients showed significant improvement of their insomnia, 8 (27.6%) showed moderate, 10 (34.5%) showed mild and 3 (10.3%) showed minimal to no improvement on treatment with doxepin (P<0.05) Only two patients (6.8%) experienced adverse effects in the form of behavioral side effects (aggression) and enuresis.

Conclusion

Our data suggests that doxepin is effective, safe and well-tolerated in the treatment of sleep initiation and maintenance insomnia as well as psychophysiological insomnia in child and adolescents with Ausitsm specutrm disorder, other neuro-developmental disorders and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It is also an effective, safe, and well-tolerated alternative in children suffering from chronic persistent insomnia. The results of this study suggests a promising emerging therapy for the treatment of insomnia in the pediatric population.

Support

None

Abstract TP81: A Closer Look at MRI-Based Core in Patients With Large Vessel Occlusion Within 6 Hours From Onset

Introduction: Recent clinical trials including EXTEND-IA and SWIFT PRIME utilized CT and MRI imaging to exclude large core patients from endovascular therapy (EVT) presenting within 6 hours from onset. We hypothesize that patients with clinical-core mismatch, retrospectively defined as admit NIHSS ≥ 6 and core volume ≤20 mL, were more likely to have early neurological improvement versus those who did not.

Methods: Patients included had confirmed large vessel occlusion in the anterior circulation, presented within 6 hours from last known normal, were screened pre-EVT with multimodal MRI, treated with EVT between January 2015 through July 2019, and consented to Natural History of Stroke Study. Core volumes were calculated using a fully automated algorithm, “coretool”, based on processed DWI and ADC maps thresholded at ≤620 μm 2 /sec. Perfusion deficit volumes were calculated by thresholding Tmax maps at >6 sec delay. Early neurological improvement (ENI) was defined as a decrease in NIHSS≥8 points or NIHSS of 0-1 at 24 hours.

Results: Fifty-four patients met study criteria with median age 54 years, 59% female, admit NIHSS=19 [13-23], onset=117 min [59-155], onset to groin=212 min [171-265], core volume=9mL [4-31], Tmax volume=82mL [50-107], mismatch volume=51mL [30-86], mismatch ratio=7.5 [2.6-11.9], and 90 day mRS=3 [1-5]. Of the 54 patients, 61% (n=33) had clinical-core mismatch while 39% (n=21) did not. Patients with mismatch had smaller core volumes, median 6 versus 39mL (p<0.001) and larger mismatch ratios, median 8.9 versus 2.6, (p=0.003), but no differences in age, sex, IV tPA treatment, onset time, onset to groin time, admit NIHSS, complete recanalization rate, Tmax volume, mismatch volume, or day 90 mRS. Fifty-five percent (18/33) of patients with clinical-core mismatch had ENI at 24 hours versus 24% (5/21) without (p=0.026).

Conclusions: Patients with clinical-core mismatch had a significantly higher rate of early neurological improvement at 24 hours post EVT. However, some patients without mismatch but with complete recanalization still did well. Alternative definitions of mismatch, outside of current guidelines, may identify patients that will benefit more from EVT.

ABO-Incompatible Kidney Transplantation: Low Rates of Infectious Complications and Excellent Patient Survival

BACKGROUND

A significant gap exists between demand and supply of organs for patients with end-stage renal disease. To increase the donor pool, kidney transplantation is performed across ABO- and HLA-incompatible barriers. ABO-incompatible kidney transplant (ABOi-KT) recipients are at increased risk of antibody-mediated rejection, infection, and mortality. Hypogammaglobulinemia secondary to immunosuppression is highly prevalent after solid organ transplantation, and intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) has been reported to reduce the risks of infections in various settings. We use high-dose IVIG in ABOi-KT recipients perioperatively. We aimed to determine the rate of infectious complications along with graft and patient survival in our ABOi-KT recipients.

METHODS

We included all adult patients who underwent ABOi-KT from the year 2007 to 2016. Patients received rituximab, plasma exchange, and IVIG (2 g/kg body weight). Thymoglobulin and intravenous methylprednisolone were used as induction treatment. Oral prednisone, mycophenolate mofetil, and tacrolimus were used as maintenance therapy.

RESULTS

A total of 77 ABOi-KTs were performed, and the recipients were followed up for a median of 1557 days. Two patients were diagnosed as having BK nephropathy. No patients were diagnosed as having pneumocystis infection, cytomegalovirus disease, herpes simplex, varicella zoster, or fungal infection. One-year graft and patient survival was 94.8% and 100%, respectively.

CONCLUSIONS

In our series of ABOi-KTs, we observed a low risk of infectious complications and excellent patient survival. High-dose IVIG might have reduced infections.

Segmental resection is a safe oncological alternative to total proctocolectomy in elderly patients with ulcerative colitis and malignancy

AIM

The standard approach for the surgical management of colorectal cancer (CRC) in the setting of ulcerative colitis (UC) involves total proctocolectomy (TPC). However, some patients also undergo a partial resection (PR). This may be an attractive option in older patients with a high risk for surgery. The aim of this study was to compare the risk of metachronous cancer after PR or TPC for CRC in the setting of UC.

METHOD

This was a retrospective cohort study conducted through the Nationwide Veterans Affairs Healthcare System (VA). Patients who had UC and underwent a PR or TPC for CRC were followed from the time of their surgery to their most recent clinical follow-up. The primary outcome was development of metachronous cancer in the PR group. Secondary outcomes included surgical and medical outcomes.

RESULTS

Fifty-nine patients were included: 24 (40.7%) underwent PR and 35 (59.3%) underwent TPC. The median age at cancer diagnosis was 73.0 and 61.7 years in PR and TPC groups, respectively (P < 0.0005). Amongst patients undergoing PR, 15 (60%) had no active UC at the time of surgery, whereas in patients undergoing TPC, at the time of surgery eight (23.5%) had no active UC (P = 0.005). No patient who underwent a partial colectomy developed a metachronous cancer in the retained colonic segment during the follow-up period (median 7 years).

CONCLUSION

Our study suggests that PR for CRC in the setting of UC may be a viable option in a selected cohort of patients, especially among the elderly.

Safety of herpes zoster vaccination among inflammatory bowel disease patients being treated with anti-TNF medications

BACKGROUND

The risk of herpes zoster (HZ) is elevated in inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) patients treated with anti-TNF medications. While it is optimal to give herpes zoster vaccine prior to initiation of therapy clinical circumstances may not always allow this.

AIM

To determine the safety of giving herpes zoster vaccine while patients are on anti-TNF therapy.

METHODS

We conducted a retrospective cohort study involving IBD patients who were followed in the Veterans Affairs (VA) healthcare system between 2001 and 2016. Patients who received herpes zoster vaccine while on anti-TNF medication were identified through vaccination codes and confirmed through individual chart review. Our outcome of interest was development of HZ between 0 and 42 days after herpes zoster vaccine administration.

RESULTS

Fifty-six thousand four hundred and seventeen patients with IBD were followed in the VA healthcare system. A total of 59 individuals were on anti-TNF medication when they were given herpes zoster vaccine, and amongst them, 12 (20%) were also taking a thiopurine. Median age at the time of herpes zoster vaccine was 64.9 years and 95% of patients had a Charlson Comorbidity Index of ≥2. Median number of encounters within 42 days after receiving herpes zoster vaccine was two. No case of HZ was found within 0-42 days of HZV administration.

CONCLUSION

Our data suggest that co-administering the herpes zoster vaccine to patients who are taking anti-TNF medications is relatively safe. This study significantly expands the evidence supporting the use of herpes zoster vaccine in this population, having included an elderly group of patients with a high Charlson Comorbidity Index who are likely at a much higher risk of developing HZ.

Minimally invasive evacuation of intraventricular hemorrhage with the Apollo vibration/suction device

Intraventricular hemorrhages (IVH) can occur as a consequence of spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage, aneurysm rupture, arteriovenous malformation hemorrhage, trauma, or coagulopathy. IVH is a known risk factor for poor clinical outcome with up to 80% mortality. The current standard treatment strategy for IVH consists of the placement of an external ventricular drain. We report our early experience with using the Apollo suction/vibration aspiration system (Penumbra, Alameda, CA, USA) for minimally invasive evacuation of IVH with a review of the pertinent literature. Medical records of patients with IVH who were admitted to Rush University Medical Center, USA, from July to November 2014 were queried from the electronic database. Patients with Graeb Scores (GS) >6 were selected for minimally invasive IVH evacuation with the Apollo aspiration system. Patient demographics, pre- and post-operative GS, pre- and post-operative modified Graeb Score (mGS), as well procedure related complications were analyzed and recorded. A total of eight patients (five men) were identified during the study period. The average age was 55.5years. The mean GS was 9.6 pre-operatively and decreased to 4.9 post-operatively (p=0.0002). The mean mGS was 22.9 pre-operatively and decreased to 11.4 post-operatively (p=0.0001). Most of the IVH reduction occurred in the frontal horn and atrium of the lateral ventricle, as well the third ventricle. One (1/8) procedure-related complication occurred consisted of a tract hemorrhage. The Apollo system can be used for minimally invasive IVH evacuation to achieve significant blood clot volume reduction with minimal procedure-related complication.

Chlamydia trachomatis among HIV infected patients using PCR technique

Background and Objectives: Chlamydia trachomatis is a sexually transmitted organism and an important public health problem in the sexually active age group. Limited studies are found regarding the prevalence of Chlamydia trachomatis in Nepal. Moreover, no study in Nepal reports the association of Chlamydia and HIV infection. The current study attempts to determine the burden of Chlamydia on HIV positive patients. Material and Methods: A total of 117 HIV positive patients visiting a HIV clinic in Kathmandu, were screened for Chlamydia infection. For this, Urine samples were collected and analyzed using the Multiplex polymerase chain reaction technique (MPCR) and Agarose gel electrophoresis. DNA isolation was performed using QIAamp DNA and Blood mini kit handbook protocol. Results: C. trachomatis was detected in 4.27% of the total 117 HIV patients. Out of positive cases 60% were males and 40% were females. However, Chlamydia is found more prevalent among females (6.89%) than in males (3.4%). Eighty percent of positive cases were asymptomatic. Conclusion: Chlamydia infection was found less commonly among studied patients and most of those cases were asymptomatic. So there is difficulty in timely detection of C. trachomatis and track the clinical sequel, which might be devastating. Hence, routine checkup is recommended for all suspected cases for timely management of the disease Janaki Medical College Journal of Medical Sciences (2013) Vol. 1 (2): 3-10 DOI: http://dx.doi.org/10.3126/jmcjms.v1i2.9261

Study on the Prevalence of Beta Haemolytic Streptococcus Among School Children

Introduction: Βeta haemolytic streptococcal infections have a worldwide distribution among children and it poses an important health problem globally. So, a five months study was conducted to know the prevalence of beta haemolytic streptococci (BHS) in the throat of school children. Materials and Methods: Throat swabs from 200 school children of Kirtipur were collected, transported to the laboratory and were processed for BHS following standard microbiological procedures. Group A Streptococci (GAS) were identified by beta haemolytic colonies, bacitracin sensitivity and catalase negativity test. ASO test was also performed from serum samples. Result: Altogether 18 (9%) BHS isolates were identified from 200 samples, out of which 11 (5.5%) isolates were from males and 7 (3.5%) were from females. Among the 18 BHS isolates, 10 were identified as GAS isolates. The number of GAS presented only 5% of total sample. There was no significant sex difference in colonization of GAS (p> 0.05). Majority of cases were asymptomatic. All GABHS isolates were sensitive to Penicillin. In Serological examination, i.e. Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titre, all serum samples showed less than 200 IU ASO titre. Conclusion: This result highlights the current situation of GABHS throat infection in school children of Kirtipur. DOI: http://dx.doi.org/10.3126/jnps.v33i1.7004 J Nepal Paediatr Soc. 2013;33(1):45-47

Chlamydia trachomatis detection in HIV infected patients using polymerase chain reaction

Introduction: Chlamydia trachomatis is a sexually transmitted organism and causes important public health problem in the sexually active age group. Limited studies are found regarding the prevalence of C. trachomatis in Nepal. Moreover, currently there are no any study in Nepal reporting the association of chlamydia and HIV infection. This study attempts to determine the burden of chlamydia on HIV positive patients. Materials and Methods: A total of 117 HIV positive patients visiting a HIV clinic in Kathmandu, were screened for chlamydia infection. For this, urine samples were collected and analyzed using the Polymerase Chain Reaction Technique (PCR). Results: C. trachomatis was detected in 4.2% of the total 117 HIV patients. Out of positive cases 60% were males and 40% were females. However, chlamydia was found more prevalent among females (6.8%) than males (3.4%). Eighty percent of positive cases were asymptomatic. Conclusions: Although, the prevalence of chlamydia infection was found less HIV patients, most of those cases were asymptomatic. Therefore, routine checkup is recommended for all suspected cases for timely management of the disease. DOI: http://doi.dx.org/10.3126/ijim.v2i1.8003 Int J Infect Microbiol 2013;2(1):12-16

Prognostic value of rapid test for diagnosis of dengue in Nepalese patients during 2010 epidemic

BACKGROUND

Dengue is an emerging vector borne disease in Nepal and rapid diagnostic test is important for early diagnosis of the disease.

OBJECTIVES

The aim of the study was to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy of commonly used rapid immunochromatographic test kit in Nepal during 2010 dengue epidemic and to assess disease burden of dengue.

METHODS

A total of 131 acute and nonacute serum samples were collected during recent epidemic of dengue in 2010 from clinically suspected Nepalese patients of different hospitals. Rapid immunochromatographic test kit was used for early diagnosis and enzyme immunosorbent was chosen as a reference assay.

RESULTS

The sensitivity and specificity of rapid test was 70% and 76.54% respectively whereas the prevalence of the disease was 38.17%. The odds ratio for males was 1.8 however; the association with the disease was statistically not significant.

CONCLUSION

The diagnostic accuracy of rapid immunochromatographic test for dengue diagnosis was low (k=0.46). So, it should be substituted by highly sensitive test device for prompt diagnosis and health personnel should consider appropriate timing of sample collection for better performance of rapid test.

The burden of dengue infection in some vulnerable regions of Nepal

Dengue is an emerging mosquito borne disease of public health importance in Nepal. A descriptive cross sectional study was carried out to estimate sero-prevalence and distribution pattern of dengue in certain vulnerable regions of Nepal from June to September 2009. A total of 460 venous blood samples were collected from individuals experiencing a febrile illness clinically consistent with dengue infection visiting nearby hospitals of Kanchanpur, Kailali, Banke, Dang and Chitwan districts. The sero-prevalence of dengue virus specific IgM was determined by enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) kit. The anti-dengue IgM positivity was found to be 12.17%. The higher frequency of positive cases (16.4%) were from age group 20-40 years followed by < 20 years age group with 9.7% and 5.3% from > 40 years age group. The association between dengue infection and age is found to be statistically significant (p < 0.05). The male:female ratio was determined as 1.3:1 in IgM positive population. Among sampling areas, Kanchanpur showed highest prevalence of dengue infection (15.5%) followed by Chitwan (11.7%), Kailai (11.1%), Banke (10.7%) and Dang (8.3%). Similarly, 94.6% of the positive cases were indigeneous and had no history of travel to other countries. Dengue is firmly established in terai region with increasing trends of infection and expansion into newer areas raising a public health threat. Regular epidemiological studies are suggested which could further reveal the contributing factors associated with dengue virus infection and help in formulating strategies in reducing the transmission rate and control of the infection.

Dengue in western Terai region of Nepal

BACKGROUND

Dengue Fever (DF) is an emerging mosquito-borne disease. It is a nagging public health problem in the low lands of Terai, expanding to new areas of Nepal in recent years.

METHODS

A cross-sectional study was conducted to determine anti-Dengue IgM positive rate in Mahendranagar, Dhangadi and Dang between August 2008 and November 2009. Serum samples were collected from 283 patients visiting hospitals with history of fever, headache and suspected DF. The samples were examined by ELISA.

RESULTS

The anti-Dengue IgM positivity was found to be 9.8 %. The positive rate was highest in Mahendranagar (13.3 %) followed by Dhangadi (9.8 %) (P<0.05). The Dengue positive cases were higher in female (10.9 %) than males (9.0 %). The positivity was higher in Ethnic group Brahman/Chherti (13.1%) as compared to Janajati (5.6 %). The highest positive cases (10.7 %) were from age group above 50 years. The highest numbers of Dengue positive cases were observed in occupation group of agriculture (18.2 %) (P>0.05).

CONCLUSIONS

Dengue has substantial expansion in Western and Far Western Terai region of Nepal which was limited to the middle Terai region in the past and mostly infects older people.

Peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma in colonic epithelial cells protects against experimental inflammatory bowel disease

INTRODUCTION

Peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma (PPARgamma) is expressed in epithelial cells, macrophage, and T and B lymphocytes. Ligand induced activation of PPARgamma was reported to attenuate colitis activity but it is not clear whether this protection is mediated by epithelial or leucocyte PPARgamma.

METHODS

Mice with targeted disruption of the PPARgamma gene in intestinal epithelial cells, generated using a villin-Cre transgene and floxed PPARgamma allele and designated PPARgamma(DeltaIEpC), were compared with littermate mice having only the PPARgamma floxed allele with no Cre transgene that expressed PPARgamma in the gut, designated PPARgamma(F/F). Colitis was induced by administering dextran sodium sulphate (DSS) and the two mouse lines compared for typical symptoms of disease and expression of inflammatory cytokines.

RESULTS

PPARgamma(DeltaIEpC) mice displayed reduced expression of the PPARgamma target genes ADRP and FABP in the gut but were otherwise normal. Increased susceptibility to DSS induced colitis, as defined by body weight loss, colon length, diarrhoea, bleeding score, and altered histology, was found in PPARgamma(DeltaIEpC) mice in comparison with PPARgamma(F/F) mice. Interleukin (IL)-6, IL-1beta, and tumour necrosis factor alpha mRNA levels in colons of PPARgamma(DeltaIEpC) mice treated with DSS were higher than in similarly treated PPARgamma(F/F) mice. The PPARgamma ligand rosiglitazone decreased the severity of DSS induced colitis and suppressed cytokine production in both PPARgamma(F/F) and PPARgamma(DeltaIEpC) mice.

CONCLUSIONS

These studies reveal that PPARgamma expressed in the colonic epithelium has an endogenous role in protection against DSS induced colitis and that rosiglitazone may act through a PPARgamma independent pathway to suppress inflammation.

Mild cognitive impairment. When is it a precursor to Alzheimer's disease?

There is good evidence suggesting that onset of Alzheimer's disease is commonly preceded by an interim phase known as mild cognitive impairment (MCI). Persons who experience this condition are at increased risk for the development of Alzheimer's disease. Diagnosing MCI involves excluding other morbidities and determining whether the patient meets predefined assessment criteria. There is no treatment for the prevention of MCI, but an understanding of the condition can improve patient management. Several clinical trials are underway to investigate potential potential MCI agents.

The role of the human placenta in embryonic nutrition. Impact of environmental and social factors

The human placenta has been implicated in the poor growth and development of the embryo/fetus due to alterations in blood flow and reductions in the transfer of nutrients such as amino acids and carbohydrates. Deficiencies of such nutrients have been the principal of many research investigations. The role of micronutrients, however, may also be major factors in appropriate growth and development, and there may be a general reduction in the availability of such nutrients, for example, the role of folate supplementation during early pregnancy and the reduction in the incidence of neural tube defects. Vitamins are not all transported via a common mechanism. Therefore, the modulation of human placental transport can be different for different vitamins, for example, A and B12. It is apparent that the human placenta can oxidatively metabolize retinoids (isotretinoin and tretinoin) to more toxic or less toxic metabolites. These metabolites can then be transferred to the fetal circulation. Such metabolism/transfer is in contrast to how vitamin B12 is bound to transcobalamin proteins, which are produced by the placenta and directionally released into the maternal and fetal circulations.

Reaction in leprosy: acute phase reactant response during and after remission

Sera from 25 patients with type 1 (Lepra), upgrading and downgrading, and type 2 (erythema nodosum leprosum [ENL]) reactions were assayed, during the reaction and after its clinical remission, for changes in levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin (A1A) and C-reactive protein (CRP). The results were compared with those from normal healthy adults and patients of leprosy without history and/or clinical evidence of reaction. The A1A levels correlated better with changes in status of type 1 reaction; whereas CRP levels correlated well with alterations in type 2 reactions and were definitely superior to A1A in this situation for monitoring the course of these episodes.

Lymphocyte adenosine deaminase activity (L-ADA) in leprosy, during and after treatment of reactions

Twenty-five patients with type 1 (lepra) and type 2 (E.N.L.) leprosy reactions were studied for lymphocyte adenosine deaminase activity (L-ADA), during and after treatment of the reactions, using a standard technique, in order to establish its pattern and if possible, its value in assessing the course of reactions. The results were compared with those from 30 control subjects, comprising 10 normal healthy adults, 10 patients with borderline tuberculoid (BT) leprosy, four patients with borderline lepromatous (BL) leprosy and six patients with lepromatous (LL) leprosy. The level of L-ADA in the leprosy controls was higher than that of normal healthy subjects. The L-ADA values in patients with different types of reactions were about 10-fold higher than those obtained from leprosy controls, emphasizing a possible role in assessing reactions in leprosy. However, there was no significant variation in L-ADA levels, either between the various leprosy controls or reaction groups, before and after treatment.

Soluble interleukin-2 receptors: levels in leprosy, and during and after type 1 (lepra) and type 2 (ENL) reactions

Twenty-five patients with Type 1 (lepra) and Type 2 (ENL) reactions, were assayed for SIL-2R in serum--before and after treatment for their acute condition--and the results were compared with 10 normal healthy adults and 20 patients of leprosy per se. Classification of each subject into different leprosy groups, and into various types and subtypes of reactions, was done according to standard criteria, prior to inclusion into the study. Detailed statistical evaluation of the data revealed significantly higher levels of SIL-2R in all leprosy patients, as compared to normal controls, with higher levels in the multibacillary groups as compared to the paucibacillary group. SIL-2Rs appeared higher in Type 1 upgrading reaction than in other forms of reaction, though this was not statistically significant. There was no significant change in levels following treatment and clinical remission.

The neuropharmacology of emesis: the role of receptors in neuromodulation of nausea and vomiting

The basic pharmacological mechanisms involved in mediating nausea and vomiting are still poorly understood. Several classes of drugs have been identified that alleviate the symptoms of nausea and vomiting, either prophylactically or acutely. None of these is completely effective in all cases. They include antihistamines, dopamine antagonists, steroids, cannabinoids, benzodiazepines, serotonin antagonists, and anticholinergics. This paper examines the evidence that links each of these classes of drugs with the distribution of specific neurotransmitter receptor sites on which they may be acting. Studies on the central nervous system distribution of binding sites for one of these classes of drugs, the anticholinergics, are described. Binding sites for the muscarinic cholinergic radioligand [3H]quinuclidinylbenzilate occur in different concentrations throughout the dorsal vagal complex of the rabbit medulla oblongata. The distribution of such sites in this nonvomiting experimental animal is markedly different from that in the cat, an animal that has been used for many physiological and pharmacological studies of emesis. A previous study has suggested that muscarinic binding sites may occur presynaptically on vagal afferent terminals that synapse in the dorsal vagal complex of the cat; this appears not to be the case in the rabbit. Possible implications of these findings for the identification of the site of action of anticholinergic, antiemetic drugs are discussed.

Impaired coronary vasodilator reserve in the immediate postcoronary angioplasty period: analysis of coronary artery flow velocity indexes and regional cardiac venous efflux

The ratio of peak hyperemic/basal mean coronary flow velocity, an index of coronary vasodilator reserve, immediately after coronary angioplasty normalizes in less than 50% of patients. To evaluate other indexes of coronary vasodilator capacity, both intracoronary arterial velocity and cardiac venous efflux were measured at rest and during vasodilator-induced coronary hyperemia (intracoronary nitroglycerin and papaverine) before and after angioplasty in 27 patients; 17 patients had measurements of intracoronary velocity alone and 10 had thermodilution measurements of great cardiac vein flow. Coronary flow velocity responses were also measured in 6 angiographically normal segments in patients undergoing angioplasty and in 10 normal left coronary artery segments in patients with normal coronary arteries or isolated right coronary artery disease. Despite significant angiographic (72 +/- 12 to 23 +/- 11% diameter narrowing) and hemodynamic (49 +/- 12 to 19 +/- 12 mm Hg aortocoronary gradient) improvement, coronary vasodilator reserve ratios for both arterial velocity and venous flow after angioplasty were only minimally affected. Angioplasty did not significantly increase rest coronary vein flow or artery flow velocities, but did result in significantly higher papaverine responses after angioplasty. Mean and phasic coronary velocity, diastolic coronary flow velocity integral and measured great cardiac vein flow ratios were significantly lower when compared with those in 16 angiographically normal coronary artery segments. These data indicate that maximal hyperemic coronary flow velocity is increased after angioplasty, but the reserve ratios, calculated by any of several flow velocity indexes, remain minimally improved. Angiographic correlations (percent coronary diameter, absolute diameter or cross-sectional area) with variables of coronary blood flow or velocity suggest that no single variable is useful in assessing angioplasty results. However, postangioplasty arterial mean velocity and diastolic flow velocity integral are nearly normalized in most patients, whereas relative changes remain attenuated. These findings are important in studies assessing coronary vasomotor responses in patients with atherosclerotic coronary disease, especially after angioplasty.

Prognostic value of early exercise stress testing after successful coronary angioplasty: importance of the degree of revascularization

The prognostic value of early exercise testing after successful coronary angioplasty was determined in 196 and 225 consecutive patients with single-vessel and multivessel coronary disease, respectively, who underwent a symptom-limited exercise test within 30 days of the procedure. The incidence of exercise-induced ST segment depression greater than or equal to 1 mm was significantly greater in patients with multivessel versus single-vessel disease (27% versus 14%; p less than 0.005) and in patients with multivessel coronary disease who had incomplete versus complete revascularization (36% versus 10%; p less than 0.001). An abnormal exercise ECG result was associated with a significantly increased risk of cardiac events in patients with multivessel disease but not in patients with single-vessel disease. Exercise-induced angina occurred in a small and similar proportion of patients with single and multivessel coronary disease (8% versus 12%). The presence of exercise-induced angina was associated with a higher incidence of follow-up cardiac events in patients with multivessel disease and incomplete revascularization (52% versus 33%; p less than 0.05). Exercise duration was significantly less in patients with multivessel disease who had a subsequent cardiac event compared with that in patients who did not have such an event (458 +/- 168 versus 519 +/- 156 seconds; p = 0.01). Thus an abnormal exercise ECG finding within 1 month of successful coronary angioplasty is predictive of subsequent cardiac events in patients who have multivessel disease. The prognostic content of the test might be further improved if the test were performed several months after the procedure when the risk of restenosis is greatest.

Myocardial ischemia with aortocoronary artery gradient reversal during right coronary angioplasty

Aortocoronary gradients are useful in assessing luminal obstructions and collateral supply during PTCA. Reversibility of collateral flow is demonstrated in a 51-year old angina patient.

Safety and diagnostic accuracy of dipyridamole-thallium imaging in the elderly

The noninvasive diagnosis of coronary artery disease in the elderly can occasionally be difficult. Intravenous dipyridamole-thallium imaging is a potentially useful diagnostic test to determine presence and severity of coronary disease; however, the safety of the procedure has not been determined in an older population. The side effect profile and frequency of severe ischemic responses after 0.56 mg/kg of intravenous dipyridamole were compared in 101 patients greater than or equal to 70 years old and 236 patients less than 70 years old. There were no side effects in 64% and 62% of patients greater than or equal to 70 and less than 70 years old, respectively (p = NS). Among the 337 patients tested, there were no complications of myocardial infarction or death. The most common cardiac side effect was chest pain, which occurred in 21 (21%) of the 101 patients aged greater than or equal to 70 years and in 64 (27%) of the 236 patients less than 70 years (p = NS). Aminophylline was required to reverse cardiac or noncardiac side effects in 15 (15%) and 36 (15%) of the patients greater than or equal to 70 and less than 70 years old, respectively (p = NS). A severe ischemic response occurred in 2% and 2.5% of patients greater than or equal to 70 and less than 70 years old, respectively (p = NS). The sensitivity of intravenous dipyridamole-thallium imaging for obstructive coronary artery disease was 86% (25 of 29) and 83% (68 of 82) in older and younger patients, respectively (p = NS); the specificity was 75% (6 of 8) and 70% (16 of 23), respectively (p = NS). Thus, intravenous dipyridamole-thallium imaging is a safe noninvasive method for assessment of older patients with obstructive coronary disease; its side effect profile and diagnostic accuracy are similar to those seen in younger patients. The technique is associated with severe ischemic responses in only a small minority of patients.

Progression of left main coronary artery stenosis following left anterior descending coronary artery angioplasty

Although recent clinical experience indicates a high success rate, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is still associated with serious complications which usually occur during or shortly after the procedure and are principally related to the lesion or segment of vessel being dilated. We report 2 cases of subacute progression within months of left main stenosis following successful, uncomplicated left anterior descending (LAD) coronary PTCA. Identification of left main trunk involvement may mandate earlier follow-up or intervention.

An infra-red fibre optic device for cardiac cycle timing and photoplethysmography

In this work a simple fibre optic device using infra-red radiation is used to obtain information on the timing of the cardiac cycle and blood volume changes in the flow of blood in the body. The device is small, non-invasive and free from interference by surrounding electromagnetic fields enabling it to be used in the environment of such devices as NMR scanners.

Optical fibre plethysmograph

We describe a method for obtaining blood volume information from the external jugular vein or carotid artery by means of an optical fibre transducer. The device may be used to obtain accurate predictions of the state of the cardiac cycle, thereby enabling a range of physiological measurements to be made. The transducer is entirely non-invasive and non-magnetic; it is extremely robust and is unaffected by the electrically and magnetically hostile environment created by an NMR scanner.

Comparative efficacy of transvenous cardioversion and pacing in patients with sustained ventricular tachycardia: a prospective, randomized, crossover study

We performed a prospective, randomized crossover study to evaluate the comparative efficacy of transvenous cardioversion and rapid ventricular pacing for termination of induced ventricular tachycardia in patients with spontaneous ventricular tachycardia and organic heart disease. Sixty-two episodes of ventricular tachycardia were induced in 15 patients, mean age 60 +/- 10 years, during electrophysiologic studies. All patients underwent a preselected electrical therapy protocol in a randomized crossover sequence. Transvenous cardioversion was performed by an incremental protocol of three sequential shocks (0.5, 1.1, and 2.7 J). Six asynchronous sequential bursts of rapid ventricular pacing (10 and 15 paced stimuli at 90%, 75%, and 65% of ventricular tachycardia cycle length) were used. Mean cycle length of ventricular tachycardia for the study population was 391 +/- 85 msec. The morphology of the tachycardia was left bundle branch block in 27, right bundle branch block in 32, and indeterminate in three. Characteristics of ventricular tachycardia terminated by the two techniques were comparable. Rate of success for termination of tachycardia with the two methods was also comparable (transvenous cardioversion 83%, rapid ventricular pacing 80%; p greater than .1) and these responses were concordant in 78%. The modes of termination of ventricular tachycardia were similar. The incidence of acceleration of ventricular tachycardia per episode with these preselected protocols was also comparable (transvenous cardioversion 11%, rapid ventricular pacing 6%; p greater than .2). Transient supraventricular tachyarrhythmias were more frequent after transvenous cardioversion (23%) than after rapid ventricular pacing (3%). Significant patient discomfort occurred only after transvenous cardioversion (incidence of 57%).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

A prospective randomized study of the clinical efficacy and safety of transvenous cardioversion for termination of ventricular tachycardia

The clinical efficacy and safety of transvenous cardioversion for termination of sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT) were examined by a prospective randomized study design in 22 patients (19 men, three women; mean age 64 +/- 9 years) with organic heart disease and sustained VT. Patients were randomly assigned to undergo an incremental low-energy protocol from 0.03 to 2.2 J (group A, 11 patients) or an incremental high-energy protocol from 0.5 to 10.0 J (group B, 11 patients). Transvenous cardioversion was performed during electrophysiologic studies in the control (drug-free) state and during serial antiarrhythmic drug testing in all patients. Both groups were comparable for demographic, disease and functional status, and electrophysiologic parameters. A total of 77 episodes of VT (group A, 45; group B, 32) were analyzed. The overall efficacy of transvenous cardioversion for termination of VT was 62% (group A 56% vs group B 72%; p less than .01). Antiarrhythmic drug therapy did not significantly enhance efficacy of transvenous cardioversion (control 59% vs drug 65%; p greater than .2). Stepwise discriminant analysis correlated successful transvenous cardioversion with longer VT cycle length (p less than .0005), higher energy (p less than .025), lower energy waveform tilt (p less than .025), shorter time to initial cardioversion attempt (p less than .025), and shorter QRS duration in sinus rhythm (p less than .05). Acceleration of VT was frequent (8% incidence per delivered shock). Thirty-one percent of all incremental shock protocols were terminated because of this complication. After cardioversion, transient arrhythmias were common (bradyarrhythmias 23%, supraventricular tachyarrhythmias 12%). Displacement of electrode catheters after transvenous cardioversion was uncommon (3%).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

The femur length/head circumference relation in obstetric sonography

The relationship of sonographic femur length to biparietal diameter (BPD) in utero may be useful in detecting short-limb dwarfism, hydrocephaly, microcephaly, and measurement errors. Because BPD can be adversely affected by head shape changes (e.g., dolichocephaly), falsely high or low values of femur length/BPD could result. Because head circumference is less affected by head shape changes than is BPD, it should be a better standard of head size against which to judge limb length. The authors report normal values for the relationship between femur length and head circumference, based on a cross-sectional analysis of 361 normal fetuses (15-42 weeks) using real-time ultrasound.

Clinical efficacy and electropharmacology of continuous intravenous amiodarone infusion and chronic oral amiodarone in refractory ventricular tachycardia

The clinical efficacy and electropharmacologic effects of continuous intravenous (i.v.) amiodarone infusion (10 to 20 mg/kg/day for 4 to 7 days) followed by chronic oral amiodarone therapy (400 to 800 mg/day for 24 to 53 days) were evaluated in 17 patients with refractory sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation. Intravenous amiodarone infusion prolonged the RR interval (from 754 +/- 85 to 860 +/- 157 ms, p less than 0.05), PR interval (from 192 +/- 53 to 212 +/- 54 ms, p less than 0.01) QRS duration (from 103 +/- 21 to 117 +/- 25 ms, p less than 0.001) and QTc interval (from 423 +/- 22 to 466 +/- 31 ms, p less than 0.001). Chronic oral amiodarone treatment had similar but more pronounced effects on electrocardiographic intervals. The ventricular effective refractory period tended to prolong after i.v. amiodarone infusion (p less than 0.1 to greater than 0.05) but prolonged significantly after chronic oral amiodarone (p = 0.025). Mean serum amiodarone concentration was 1.7 +/- 1.0 mg/liter with infusion and 1.5 +/- 0.6 mg/liter with oral therapy. Intravenous amiodarone infusion suppressed spontaneous VT in 5 of 9 patients with frequent VT recurrences, but had no effect on cycle length of spontaneous VT. Chronic amiodarone therapy either suppressed spontaneous VT recurrences or prolonged cycle length during VT recurrences. VT induction after i.v. amiodarone was not predictive of VT induction or spontaneous VT recurrences after chronic oral amiodarone treatment. Thus, i.v. amiodarone has limited value in acute control of VT and clinical or electrophysiologic response to it is not predictive of long term therapeutic results with amiodarone.

Descending inhibitory influences from periaqueductal gray, nucleus raphe magnus, and adjacent reticular formation. II. Effects on medullary dorsal horn nociceptive and nonnociceptive neurons

1. This study examined the inhibitory effects elicited by brain stem stimulation on the somatosensory responses of trigeminal medullary dorsal horn (subnucleus caudalis of the spinal trigeminal nucleus) neurons. Single-unit extracellular recordings were obtained in chloralose-anesthetized cats. Neurons were classified as wide dynamic range (WDR), nociceptive specific (NS), or low-threshold mechanoreceptive (LTM). Conditioning stimuli were delivered to the periaqueductal gray (PAG), nucleus cuneiformis (CU), nucleus raphe magnus (NRM), nucleus reticularis gigantocellularis (NGC), and nucleus reticularis magnocellularis (NMC). 2. Over 97% of the neurons tested could be inhibited by stimulation in all regions except PAG. Stimulation in the PAG inhibited 91% of the neurons tested. There was no statistically significant difference in the incidence of inhibition of WDR and NS nociceptive (noci) neurons and the LTM nonnociceptive (nonnoci) neurons. 3. Mean stimulation intensities necessary to produce inhibition were determined for each neuron from each stimulation site. The current thresholds necessary to inhibit the responses of noci neurons were found to be significantly lower, on the average, than those of nonnoci neurons at stimulation sites in the PAG, CU, and NGC. 4. Inhibition of the responses of WDR neurons required a lower mean current than for NS neurons but was statistically significant only for PAG and NGC. Thresholds for inhibiting the responses of NS neurons were similar to those for inhibiting the responses of LTM neurons for all regions except CU, where LTM thresholds were markedly but not significantly higher. 5. Stimulation thresholds were found to be lowest in NMC, while in NGC, NRM, and CU they were all similar and slightly higher. Stimulation in the PAG required the highest currents to produce inhibition. 6. These results indicate that stimulation in NRM and PAG not only inhibits the responses of noci neurons but also those of nonnoci neurons. Furthermore, stimulation in reticular regions adjacent to NRM and PAG is frequently even more effective in inhibiting the responses of both noci and nonnoci neurons. In addition, WDR neurons are more effectively inhibited than NS or LTM neurons. These results are compared with those obtained using similar methods in cat lumbar dorsal horn.

Advanced ultrasound evaluation of fetal hydrocephaly

Advancing technology of ultrasound imaging has unraveled numerous problems in perinatology. The 1980's is the era of high-resolution real time ultrasonography, enabling the diagnosis of fetal hydrocephaly to be made in midtrimester pregnancy even prior to the age of fetal viability. The findings obtained by full evaluation of hydrocephalic fetuses with serial ultrasounds are helpful in appropriate counseling of parents by the birth defects team and in planning the best time and management of delivery in a perinatal center. Arrest of progression of severe hydrocephaly in the second half of pregnancy prior to fetal lung maturity has been accomplished by intrauterine implantation of ventriculoamniotic shunts. The potential risk of maternal soft tissue injury from delivery of an oversized head of a severely compromised fetus can be minimized by partial and slow decompression of fetal head under ultrasound guidance using a #20 spinal needle. The influence of the recent developments on better fetal diagnosis and survival of infants with neural tube defects in 1981 was compared to that obtained during the previous five years.

Simultaneous appearance of keratin modifications and gamma-glutamyltransferase activity as indicators of tumor progression in mouse skin papillomas

gamma-Glutamyltransferase (GGT), an enzyme not found in normal adult epidermis, was detected in most skin papillomas larger than 13 mm in diameter and in all squamous carcinomas induced by 7,12-dimethylbenz[a]anthracene initiation and 12-O-tetradecanoylphorbol 13-acetate promotion in noninbred Sencar mice. Furthermore, these GGT-positive lesions were also characterized by a marked decrease or absence of high-molecular-weight components of epidermal keratin. Since these characteristics are common to both carcinomas and large papillomas but are practically undetectable in normal epidermis and small papillomas, GGT activity and lack of high-molecular-weight keratin components seem to be good indicators of tumor progression, i.e., from papilloma to squamous carcinoma.