A US-based national surveillance study for the susceptibility and epidemiology of Clostridioides difficile isolates with special reference to ridinilazole: 2020-2021

We have previously reported on the susceptibility and epidemiology of Clostridioides difficile isolates from six geographically dispersed medical centers in the United States. This current survey was conducted with isolates collected in 2020-2021 from six geographically dispersed medical centers in the United States, with specific attention to susceptibility to ridinilazole as well as nine comparators. C. difficile isolates or stools from patients with C. difficile antibiotic-associated diarrhea were collected and referred to a central laboratory. After species confirmation of 300 isolates at the central laboratory, antibiotic susceptibilities were determined by the agar dilution method [M11-A9, Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)] against the 10 agents. Ribotyping was performed by PCR capillary gel electrophoresis on all isolates. Ridinilazole had a minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) 90 of 0.25 mcg/mL, and no isolate had an MIC greater than 0.5 mcg/mL. In comparison, fidaxomicin had an MIC 90 of 0.5 mcg/mL. The vancomycin MIC 90 was 2 mcg/mL with a 0.7% resistance rate [both CLSI and European Committee on Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing (EUCAST) criteria]. The metronidazole MIC 90 was 1 mcg/mL, with none resistant by CLSI criteria, and a 0.3% resistance rate by EUCAST criteria. Among the 50 different ribotypes isolated in the survey, the most common ribotype was 014-020 (14.0%) followed by 106 (10.3%), 027 (10%), 002 (8%), and 078-126 (4.3%). Ridinilazole maintained activity against all ribotypes and all strains resistant to any other agent tested. Ridinilazole showed excellent in vitro activity against C. difficile isolates collected between 2020 and 2021 in the United States, independent of ribotype.

The vapor-phase multi-stage CMD test for characterizing contaminant mass discharge associated with VOC sources in the vadose zone: Application to three sites in different lifecycle stages of SVE operations

Vapor-phase multi-stage contaminant mass discharge (CMD) tests were conducted at three field sites to measure mass discharge associated with contaminant sources located in the vadose zone. The three sites represent the three primary stages of the soil vapor extraction (SVE) operations lifecycle-pre/initial-SVE, mid-lifecycle, and near-closure. A CMD of 32g/d was obtained for a site at which soil vapor SVE has been in operation for approximately 6years, and for which mass removal is currently in the asymptotic stage. The contaminant removal behavior exhibited for the vapor extractions conducted at this site suggests that there is unlikely to be a significant mass of non-vapor-phase contaminant (e.g., DNAPL, sorbed phase) remaining in the advective domains, and that most remaining mass is likely located in poorly accessible domains. Given the conditions for this site, this remaining mass is hypothesized to be associated with the low-permeability (and higher water saturation) region in the vicinity of the saturated zone and capillary fringe. A CMD of 25g/d was obtained for a site wherein SVE has been in operation for several years but concentrations and mass-removal rates are still relatively high. A CMD of 270g/d was obtained for a site for which there were no prior SVE operations. The behavior exhibited for the vapor extractions conducted at this site suggest that non-vapor-phase contaminant mass (e.g., DNAPL) may be present in the advective domains. Hence, the asymptotic conditions observed for this site most likely derive from a combination of rate-limited mass transfer from DNAPL (and sorbed) phases present in the advective domain as well as mass residing in lower-permeability ("non-advective") regions. The CMD values obtained from the tests were used in conjunction with a recently developed vapor-discharge tool to evaluate the impact of the measured CMDs on groundwater quality.

Characterizing long-term contaminant mass discharge and the relationship between reductions in discharge and reductions in mass for DNAPL source areas

The objective of this study was to characterize the temporal behavior of contaminant mass discharge, and the relationship between reductions in contaminant mass discharge and reductions in contaminant mass, for a very heterogeneous, highly contaminated source-zone field site. Trichloroethene is the primary contaminant of concern, and several lines of evidence indicate the presence of organic liquid in the subsurface. The site is undergoing groundwater extraction for source control, and contaminant mass discharge has been monitored since system startup. The results show a significant reduction in contaminant mass discharge with time, decreasing from approximately 1 to 0.15 kg/d over five years. Two methods were used to estimate the mass of contaminant present in the source area at the initiation of the remediation project. One was based on a comparison of two sets of core data, collected 3.5 years apart, which suggests that a significant (~80%) reduction in aggregate sediment-phase TCE concentrations occurred between sampling events. The second method was based on fitting the temporal contaminant mass discharge data with a simple exponential source-depletion function. Relatively similar estimates, 784 and 993 kg, respectively, were obtained with the two methods. These data were used to characterize the relationship between reductions in contaminant mass discharge (CMDR) and reductions in contaminant mass (MR). The observed curvilinear relationship exhibits a reduction in contaminant mass discharge essentially immediately upon the initiation of mass reduction. This behavior is consistent with a system wherein significant quantities of mass are present in hydraulically poorly accessible domains for which mass removal is influenced by rate-limited mass transfer. The results obtained from the present study are compared to those obtained from other field studies to evaluate the impact of system properties and conditions on mass-discharge and mass-removal behavior. The results indicate that factors such as domain scale, hydraulic-gradient status (induced or natural), and flushing-solution composition had insignificant impact on the CMDR-MR profiles and thus on underlying mass-removal behavior. Conversely, source-zone age, through its impact on contaminant distribution and accessibility, was implicated as a critical factor influencing the nature of the CMDR-MR relationship.

Prospective evaluation of a matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization-time of flight mass spectrometry system in a hospital clinical microbiology laboratory for identification of bacteria and yeasts: a bench-by-bench study for assessing the impact on time to identification and cost-effectiveness

Matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization-time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS) has been found to be an accurate, rapid, and inexpensive method for the identification of bacteria and yeasts. Previous evaluations have compared the accuracy, time to identification, and costs of the MALDI-TOF MS method against standard identification systems or commercial panels. In this prospective study, we compared a protocol incorporating MALDI-TOF MS (MALDI protocol) with the current standard identification protocols (standard protocol) to determine the performance in actual practice using a specimen-based, bench-by-bench approach. The potential impact on time to identification (TTI) and costs had MALDI-TOF MS been the first-line identification method was quantitated. The MALDI protocol includes supplementary tests, notably for Streptococcus pneumoniae and Shigella, and indications for repeat MALDI-TOF MS attempts, often not measured in previous studies. A total of 952 isolates (824 bacterial isolates and 128 yeast isolates) recovered from 2,214 specimens were assessed using the MALDI protocol. Compared with standard protocols, the MALDI protocol provided identifications 1.45 days earlier on average (P < 0.001). In our laboratory, we anticipate that the incorporation of the MALDI protocol can reduce reagent and labor costs of identification by $102,424 or 56.9% within 12 months. The model included the fixed annual costs of the MALDI-TOF MS, such as the cost of protein standards and instrument maintenance, and the annual prevalence of organisms encountered in our laboratory. This comprehensive cost analysis model can be generalized to other moderate- to high-volume laboratories.

Sulfate reduction in groundwater: characterization and applications for remediation

Sulfate is ubiquitous in groundwater, with both natural and anthropogenic sources. Sulfate reduction reactions play a significant role in mediating redox conditions and biogeochemical processes for subsurface systems. They also serve as the basis for innovative in situ methods for groundwater remediation. An overview of sulfate reduction in subsurface environments is provided, along with a brief discussion of characterization methods and applications for addressing acid mine drainage. We then focus on two innovative, in situ methods for remediating sulfate-contaminated groundwater, the use of zero-valent iron and the addition of electron-donor substrates. The advantages and limitations associated with the methods are discussed, with examples of prior applications.

Sulfate reduction in groundwater: characterization and applications for remediation

Sulfate is ubiquitous in groundwater, with both natural and anthropogenic sources. Sulfate reduction reactions play a significant role in mediating redox conditions and biogeochemical processes for subsurface systems. They also serve as the basis for innovative in situ methods for groundwater remediation. An overview of sulfate reduction in subsurface environments is provided, along with a brief discussion of characterization methods and applications for addressing acid mine drainage. We then focus on two innovative, in situ methods for remediating sulfate-contaminated groundwater, the use of zero-valent iron and the addition of electron-donor substrates. The advantages and limitations associated with the methods are discussed, with examples of prior applications.

Impact of in situ chemical oxidation on contaminant mass discharge: linking source-zone and plume-scale characterizations of remediation performance

A large-scale permanganate-based in situ chemical oxidation (ISCO) effort has been conducted over the past ten years at a federal Superfund site in Tucson, AZ, for which trichloroethene (TCE) is the primary contaminant of concern. Remediation performance was assessed by examining the impact of treatment on contaminant mass discharge, an approach that has been used for only a very few prior ISCO projects. Contaminant mass discharge tests were conducted before and after permanganate injection to measure the impact at the source-zone scale. The results indicate that ISCO caused a significant reduction in mass discharge (approximately 75%). The standard approach of characterizing discharge at the source-zone scale was supplemented with additional characterization at the plume scale, which was evaluated by examining the change in contaminant mass discharge associated with the pump-and-treat system. The integrated contaminant mass discharge decreased by approximately 70%, consistent with the source-zone-scale measurements. The integrated mass discharge rebounded from 0.1 to 0.2 kg/d within one year after cessation of permanganate injections, after which it has been stable for several years. Collection of the integrated contaminant mass discharge data throughout the ISCO treatment period provided a high-resolution, real-time analysis of the site-wide impact of ISCO, thereby linking source-zone remediation to impacts on overall risk. The results indicate that ISCO was successful in reducing contaminant mass discharge at this site, which comprises a highly heterogeneous subsurface environment. Analysis of TCE sediment concentration data for core material collected before and after ISCO supports the hypothesis that the remaining mass discharge is associated in part with poorly accessible contaminant mass residing within lower-permeability zones.

Rapidly progressive cutaneous Rhizopus microsporus infection presenting as Fournier's gangrene in a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia

Members of the genus Rhizopus within the class Zygomycetes can cause devastating opportunistic infections. Cutaneous disease arising from direct inoculation of fungal spores has the potential to disseminate widely. Here, we describe a dramatic case of cutaneous Rhizopus infection involving the penis in a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia. Despite aggressive surgical debridement, systemic antifungal therapy, and donor lymphocyte infusion, the infection was ultimately fatal. This case illustrates the unique diagnostic and therapeutic challenges in the clinical management of cutaneous Rhizopus infection.

Comparison of an automated repetitive sequence-based PCR microbial typing system to pulsed-field gel electrophoresis for analysis of outbreaks of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Rapid and sensitive methods for accurate strain delineation are essential for monitoring and preventing transmission of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) has been the standard technique for strain typing most bacterial species including MRSA. The goal of this study was to compare the performance of the DiversiLab microbial typing system (Bacterial BarCodes, Inc., Houston, TX) (rep-PCR) to that of PFGE for typing MRSA isolates from five well-defined outbreaks. The DiversiLab rep-PCR assay is a rapid, semiautomated method based on PCR amplification of specific regions between noncoding repetitive sequences in the bacterial genome. rep-PCR was performed according to the manufacturer's recommendations, and the results were analyzed and dendrograms were generated using the DiversiLab analysis software (version 2.1.66 a). PFGE was performed and interpreted according to published procedures. rep-PCR results using similarity indices (SI) of 80%, 85%, and 90% were compared to PFGE analysis. In addition, intra- and interrun reproducibility was determined for rep-PCR. Overall, correct assignment to outbreak versus nonoutbreak clusters occurred for 91 of 109 isolates (85% agreement) when using a SI of 85%. For each specific outbreak, concordance between rep-PCR and PFGE ranged from 73% to 100%. There were 18 discrepant results (17%). Fourteen isolates were unique by PFGE, but they were placed in clusters by rep-PCR; the other 4 were placed in clusters different from those assigned by PFGE. Intra- and interrun reproducibility was excellent. Times to results were 12 to 24 h for rep-PCR compared to 2 to 4 days for PFGE. Rapid, standardized results and excellent reproducibility make rep-PCR a valuable tool for use in MRSA investigations. However, since rep-PCR was less discriminatory than PFGE, we recommend that it be used to screen isolates, followed by testing isolates which share the same rep-PCR pattern with a more sensitive method, such as PFGE or multilocus sequence typing.

Staphylococcus aureus with reduced susceptibility to vancomycin

Infections with Staphylococcus aureus with reduced susceptibility to vancomycin continue to be reported, including 2 cases caused by S. aureus isolates with full resistance to vancomycin. This review first outlines the definitions of vancomycin-intermediate S. aureus (VISA) and vancomycin-resistant S. aureus (VRSA) and risk factors for infection. Next, we describe the mechanisms of resistance and methods of laboratory detection of the organisms. Finally, we address infection control and management issues associated with isolation of VISA and VRSA.

Comparison of a Commercial Reversed Passive Latex Agglutination Assay to an Enzyme Immunoassay for the Detection of Shiga Toxin-Producing Escherichia coli

A multicenter study was performed to compare the performance of a prototypic reversed passive latex agglutination assay (VTEC Screen "Seiken"; Denka-Seiken, Japan) with the Premier EHEC Enzyme Immunoassay (Meridian Diagnostics, USA) for the detection of Shiga toxin in 554 diarrheal stool samples. Standard culture on sorbitol MacConkey agar and the use of latex agglutination reagents were included to identify the Escherichia coli O157, O26 and O111 serotypes. There was 99% agreement between the VTEC screen and enzyme immunoassay (kappa=0.823). Seventeen samples were positive for toxin by one or both assays. One toxin-positive sample using the enzyme immunoassay and four positive samples using the VTEC Screen could not be confirmed. Serotypes identified included: O157:H7 (n=8), O26 (n=2), O111 (n=1) and O45:H2 (n=1). The VTEC screen is easy to perform and comparable to the Meridian EHEC test for detection of Shiga toxin in clinical samples.

Identification of Mycobacterium spp. by using a commercial 16S ribosomal DNA sequencing kit and additional sequencing libraries

Current methods for identification of Mycobacterium spp. rely upon time-consuming phenotypic tests, mycolic acid analysis, and narrow-spectrum nucleic acid probes. Newer approaches include PCR and sequencing technologies. We evaluated the MicroSeq 500 16S ribosomal DNA (rDNA) bacterial sequencing kit (Applied Biosystems, Foster City, Calif.) for its ability to identify Mycobacterium isolates. The kit is based on PCR and sequencing of the first 500 bp of the bacterial rRNA gene. One hundred nineteen mycobacterial isolates (94 clinical isolates and 25 reference strains) were identified using traditional phenotypic methods and the MicroSeq system in conjunction with separate databases. The sequencing system gave 87% (104 of 119) concordant results when compared with traditional phenotypic methods. An independent laboratory using a separate database analyzed the sequences of the 15 discordant samples and confirmed the results. The use of 16S rDNA sequencing technology for identification of Mycobacterium spp. provides more rapid and more accurate characterization than do phenotypic methods. The MicroSeq 500 system simplifies the sequencing process but, in its present form, requires use of additional databases such as the Ribosomal Differentiation of Medical Microorganisms (RIDOM) to precisely identify subtypes of type strains and species not currently in the MicroSeq library.

Evaluation of the Prodesse Hexaplex multiplex PCR assay for direct detection of seven respiratory viruses in clinical specimens

We evaluated the Hexaplex assay (Prodesse, Waukesha, WI) for the detection of 7 respiratory viruses (influenza A and B, parainfluenza 1-3, and respiratory syncytial virus [RSV] A and B). The Hexaplex assay was performed on 300 respiratory samples during the 1999-2000 respiratory virus season. Results of this assay were compared with shell vial cell culture and/or direct fluorescent antibody stain. The overall sensitivity and specificity of the assay were 96.6% and 94.1%, respectively. The respective sensitivity and specificity of the Hexaplex assay for detection of specific virus groups were as follows: influenza A, 98.6% and 97.8%; influenza B, 100% and 100%; and for parainfluenza viruses (1-3), 100% and 99.1%. The assay did not perform as well with patients infected with RSV: sensitivity and specificity were 91.0% and 98.6%, respectively. There are 2 major drawbacks to this assay: it is technically demanding (3-4 hours hands-on time), and it is expensive ($80-$90 direct cost). Nevertheless, because of the excellent sensitivity and specificity, the Hexaplex assay may be valuable in the diagnosis of respiratory viral infections in immunocompromised patients.

Comparison of three transport systems (Starplex StarSwab II, the new Copan Vi-Pak Amies Agar Gel collection and transport swabs, and BBL Port-A-Cul) for maintenance of anaerobic and fastidious aerobic organisms

Of utmost importance in evaluations of clinical samples for infectious agents is proper specimen transport to the clinical laboratory. In the present study we compared three transport systems (the new Starplex StarSwab II, the new Copan Vi-Pak Amies Agar Gel collection and transport swabs, and the BBL Port-A-Cul) for survival of anaerobic and fastidious aerobic bacteria. The new Copan Vi-Pak system has been modified by nitrogen gas flushing to keep an ideal low E(h) condition and to prevent oxidation of the transport medium. The Copan Vi-Pak system outperformed the other two swabs evaluated by maintaining the viabilities of both anaerobic and fastidious aerobic bacteria for 24 h for the majority of the organisms evaluated. This time period should be sufficient for transport of specimens to the clinical microbiology laboratory without compromising organism recovery.

Evaluation of the roche AMPLICOR enterovirus PCR assay in the diagnosis of enteroviral central nervous system infections

BACKGROUND

Enteroviruses cause a substantial number of cases of aseptic meningitis annually in the USA. While culture has been useful in the detection of patients with viral meningitis it is time-consuming and lacks sensitivity. Detection of viral nucleic acid in patient specimens has been demonstrated to improve enteroviral detection.

OBJECTIVES

A research use only commercial amplification assay, the Roche AMPLICOR EV test, was compared to culture for the diagnosis of enteroviral meningoencephalitis.

STUDY DESIGN

Four-hundred and sixty-five consecutive CSF samples sent prospectively for suspicion of enteroviral infection were evaluated by PCR and shell-vial culture. Clinical information and CSF analysis were used to resolve PCR positive, culture negative samples. Sensitivity and specificity were calculated using resolved data.

RESULTS

There were 138 samples which met the definition of a true positive. Of these culture detected 77 (sensitivity 55.8%) and PCR detected 136 (sensitivity 98.6%). PCR missed two culture positive samples. Upon repeat testing, these CSF samples were found to contain inhibitors.

CONCLUSIONS

The Roche AMPLICOR EV-PCR test was statistically more sensitive than culture (P<0.001) in the detection of enteroviruses in CSF in patients suspected of having enteroviral meningitis. This assay also has the advantage of a rapid turnaround time of 5-6 h compared to 3-5 days for culture.

Rapid detection of Campylobacter jejuni in stool specimens by an enzyme immunoassay and surveillance for Campylobacter upsaliensis in the greater Salt Lake City area

The Alexon-Trend, Inc. (Ramsey, Minn.), ProSpecT Campylobacter microplate assay was compared with culture on a Campy-CVA plate (Remel, Lenexa, Kans.) and blood-free campylobacter agar with cefoperazone (20 microg/ml), amphotericin B (10 microg/ml), and teicoplanin (4 microg/ml) (CAT medium; Oxoid Limited, Hampshire, England) with 631 patient stool samples. The CAT medium was used to isolate Campylobacter upsaliensis. The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) had a sensitivity and a specificity of 89 and 99%, respectively, and the positive and negative predictive values were 80 and 99%, respectively. Even though we extensively looked for C. upsaliensis in stool samples from patients from the greater Salt Lake City area, we did not isolate this species during the study period. The overall excellent specificity of the EIA allows rapid detection and treatment of positive patients; however, a negative result should be confirmed by culture when clinical suspicion is high.

Infectious diarrhea: pathogens and treatment

Infectious diarrhea is the most common infectious disease syndrome worldwide resulting in more than five million deaths annually. The greatest morbidity and mortality is seen among children younger than two years of age. A variety of bacterial, viral and parasitic pathogens are responsible for the various syndromes. A combination of host susceptibility and organism virulence factors is responsible for disease. Most episodes of gastroenteritis are self-limited. The hallmark of patient management is strict attention to fluid and electrolyte disturbances. Antimotility agents should be used with caution if at all in children, but may be helpful in adults with travelers' diarrhea. Antimicrobial therapy may shorten the duration of diarrhea in some illnesses, but use is restricted due to emergence of resistance or due to lack of availability in some countries. Newer strategies for prevention include vaccine development.

Laboratory diagnosis of atypical pneumonia

"Atypical pneumonia" is a term loosely applied to lower respiratory tract infections that are not characterized by signs and symptoms of lobar consolidation. This description can apply to disease caused by a variety of bacterial, viral and even protozoan organisms. In reality, differentiation as to etiology of pneumonia cannot be distinguished on the basis of clinical presentation. This review will discuss the epidemiology, clinical manifestations, and laboratory diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia sp., Legionella sp., Bordetella pertussis, and Coxiella bumetii, the most common agents associated with atypical pneumonia. Unfortunately, because many of these pathogens are intracellular, culture systems are either not available or the techniques employed are costly, time-consuming or unsafe. Until molecular techniques are standardized and widely available, diagnosis will depend upon serologic confirmation. Given the relative importance of these organisms as causes of community acquired pneumonia, current practice guidelines recommend empiric therapy with a macrolide in patients well enough to be treated as an outpatient. However, diagnostic tests should be performed in any patient requiring hospitalization.

Detection of Legionella species in respiratory specimens using PCR with sequencing confirmation

Legionella spp. are a common cause of community-acquired respiratory tract infections and an occasional cause of nosocomial pneumonia. A PCR method for the detection of legionellae in respiratory samples was evaluated and was compared to culture. The procedure can be performed in 6 to 8 h with a commercially available DNA extraction kit (Qiagen, Valencia, Calif.) and by PCR with gel detection. PCR is performed with primers previously determined to amplify a 386-bp product within the 16S rRNA gene of Legionella pneumophila. We can specifically detect the clinically significant Legionella species including L. pneumophila, L. micdadei, L. longbeachae, L. bozemanii, L. feeleii, and L. dumoffii. The assay detects 10 fg (approximately two organisms) of legionella DNA in each PCR. Of 212 clinical specimens examined by culture, 100% of the culture-positive samples (31 of 31) were positive by this assay. By gel detection of amplification products, 12 of 181 culture-negative samples were positive for Legionella species by PCR, resulting in 93% specificity. Four of the 12 samples with discrepant results (culture negative, PCR positive) were confirmed to be positive for Legionella species by sequencing of the amplicons. The legionella-specific PCR assay that is described demonstrates high sensitivity and high specificity for routine detection of legionellae in respiratory samples.

Comparison of the TOX A/B test to a cell culture cytotoxicity assay for the detection of Clostridium difficile in stools

The TOX A/B Test (Techlab, Blacksburg, VA, USA) was compared to cell culture cytotoxicity assay on 1109 consecutive diarrheal stool samples collected from patients with the presumptive diagnosis of Clostridium difficile disease. The TOX A/B Test is an enzyme immunoassay in a microtiter format that detects both toxins A and B. The procedure used for this study takes approximately 1.5 h to perform. Cell culture cytotoxicity was performed by using a fibroblast cell line in a microtiter format read at 4 h, 24 h, and 48 h. One hundred ninety-four of the 1109 samples were positive by the "gold standard" cytotoxicity assay, whereas 189 were positive by EIA. There was a 98.5% agreement between the two assays. When compared to the cytotoxicity assay, the EIA had an initial sensitivity of 94.3% and a specificity of 99.3%. However, after resolution of six discrepants using another ELISA for toxin A detection the sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values for the TOX A/B test are as follows: 94.5%; 100%; 100%; 98.8%. The corresponding values for the cytotoxicity assay are: 97%; 100%; 100%; and 99.3%. This test seems to have excellent sensitivity and specificity as compared to an in-house cell culture cytotoxicity assay. It is sensitive enough to use as a stand-alone test for the detection of C. difficile toxin in laboratories that do not have cell culture cytotoxicity testing capability.

Comparison of sorbitol MacConkey agar and a two-step method which utilizes enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay toxin testing and a chromogenic agar to detect and isolate enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli

Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) and specifically serotype O157:H7 are a significant cause of hemorrhagic gastrointestinal disease and the hemolytic uremic syndrome. Methods currently used in clinical microbiology labs, such as sorbitol-MacConkey (SMAC) agar, reliably detect only O157:H7. We have evaluated a two-step method that has the potential to identify and isolate all EHEC serotypes, including serotype O157:H7. This method utilizes a chromogenic selective-differential medium for the isolation of E. coli together with an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) that detects the Shiga-like toxins Stx1 and Stx2. Both are commercially available and usable in a wide range of clinical microbiology laboratories. Compared to a Vero cell cytotoxic assay, SMAC had sensitivities of 23.5% for the identification of all EHEC serotypes and of 50.0% for the identification of O157:H7 alone. The two-step method had sensitivities of 76.5 and 100%, respectively. The ELISA alone had a sensitivity of 82.4% in the detection of Stx1 and Stx2. The specificity was 100% in all cases. Overall, 14 EHEC isolates were obtained: 8 (58%) O157:H7, 2 (14%) O26, 2 (14%) O111:NM, 1 (7%) O103:H2, and 1 (7%) O121:H19. All but one were isolated during the months of May to September. The two-step method was found to be considerably more expensive than SMAC for both positive and negative samples.

Isolation of a new subspecies, Bartonella vinsonii subsp. arupensis, from a cattle rancher: identity with isolates found in conjunction with Borrelia burgdorferi and Babesia microti among naturally infected mice

Bacteremia with fever due to a novel subspecies of Bartonella vinsonii was found in a cattle rancher. The subspecies shared major characteristics of the genus Bartonella in terms of most biochemical features and cellular fatty acid profile, but it was distinguishable from other subspecies of B. vinsonii by good growth on heart infusion agar supplemented with X factor and by its pattern of enzymatic hydrolysis of peptide substrates. DNA relatedness studies verified that the isolate belonged to the genus Bartonella and that it was genotypically related to B. vinsonii. The highest level of relatedness was observed with recently characterized strains from naturally infected mice that were coinfected with Borrelia burgdorferi and Babesia microti. We propose the name Bartonella vinsonii subsp. arupensis subsp. nov. as the new subspecies to accommodate these human and murine isolates.

Pain assessment and management in critically ill postoperative and trauma patients: a multisite study

BACKGROUND: Pain in critically ill patients is undertreated. OBJECTIVES: To examine patients' perceptions of pain and acute pain management practices in a large metropolitan area to provide direction for improvements in pain relief. METHODS: In a descriptive, correlational study, data were collected from 213 patients in 13 hospitals. Interviews with patients, chart reviews, and interviews with nurse leaders were used to examine institutional and individual approaches to pain management. RESULTS: Twenty-eight percent of patients did not recall an explanation of a pain management plan, and 64% were often in moderate to severe pain while in the intensive care unit. High pain intensity correlated with wait for an analgesic (P &lt; .001), expectations of less pain (P &lt; .001), and longer stay in the intensive care unit (P &lt; .001). Low satisfaction correlated with expectations of less pain (P &lt; .001), often being in moderate to severe pain (P &lt; .001), and long wait for an analgesic (P &lt; .001). In the first 24 hours postoperatively, only 54% of patients had a numerical pain rating documented; 91% had a pain description. The amount of opioid given on postoperative day 1 was influenced by pain intensity (P &lt; .001), the patient's age (P = .03), type of surgery (P = .002), and route of analgesic (P &lt; .001). Only 33% of patients had nonpharmacological pain interventions documented. CONCLUSIONS: Despite moderate to severe pain, patients are generally satisfied with their pain relief. Measuring patients' satisfaction alone is not a reliable outcome for determining the effectiveness of pain management. Realistic expectations of patients about their pain may enhance coping, increase satisfaction, and decrease pain intensity after surgery.

Pain assessment and management in critically ill postoperative and trauma patients: a multisite study

BACKGROUND

Pain in critically ill patients is undertreated.

OBJECTIVES

To examine patients' perceptions of pain and acute pain management practices in a large metropolitan area to provide direction for improvements in pain relief.

METHODS

In a descriptive, correlational study, data were collected from 213 patients in 13 hospitals. Interviews with patients, chart reviews, and interviews with nurse leaders were used to examine institutional and individual approaches to pain management.

RESULTS

Twenty-eight percent of patients did not recall an explanation of a pain management plan, and 64% were often in moderate to severe pain while in the intensive care unit. High pain intensity correlated with wait for an analgesic (P < .001), expectations of less pain (P < .001), and longer stay in the intensive care unit (P < .001). Low satisfaction correlated with expectations of less pain (P < .001), often being in moderate to severe pain (P < .001), and long wait for an analgesic (P < .001). In the first 24 hours postoperatively, only 54% of patients had a numerical pain rating documented; 91% had a pain description. The amount of opioid given on postoperative day 1 was influenced by pain intensity (P < .001), the patient's age (P = .03), type of surgery (P = .002), and route of analgesic (P < .001). Only 33% of patients had nonpharmacological pain interventions documented.

CONCLUSIONS

Despite moderate to severe pain, patients are generally satisfied with their pain relief. Measuring patients' satisfaction alone is not a reliable outcome for determining the effectiveness of pain management. Realistic expectations of patients about their pain may enhance coping, increase satisfaction, and decrease pain intensity after surgery.

A polymerase chain reaction-based epidemiologic investigation of the incidence of nonpolio enteroviral infections in febrile and afebrile infants 90 days and younger

OBJECTIVE

Enteroviruses are important pathogens in infants, but their true contribution to febrile illness in infants </=90 days old is unknown. The purpose of this study was to use the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for diagnosis of enteroviral (EV) infection in febrile and afebrile infants </=90 days of age to improve the understanding of the epidemiology of EV infection in this population.

METHODS

Patients included all unimmunized, febrile infants </=90 days of age admitted to Primary Children's Medical Center (Salt Lake City, UT) for sepsis evaluation from December 1996 to December 1997. Blood, urine, cerebrospinal fluid, and throat swabs were tested for enteroviruses using a PCR assay (Roche Molecular Systems, Branchburg, NJ). Alternate PCR assays separated polio and nonpolio enteroviruses. Results of bacterial cultures, outcome, and hospital charges were obtained. Blood from afebrile, control infants </=90 days old was tested for enteroviruses.

RESULTS

A total of 345 febrile infants were enrolled; 89 (25.8%) were positive for enterovirus. The incidence of EV infection ranged from 3.2% in January to 50% in August and October. Five EV-positive, febrile infants (5.6%) had concomitant urinary tract infections, and 1 (1. 1%) had concomitant bacteremia. Infants with confirmed EV infection were significantly less likely to have bacterial infection than those who were EV-negative. All infants infected with an enterovirus recovered. Average length of stay was 3 days, average charges were nearly $4500. Eighty-six afebrile, control infants were enrolled; 6 (6.9%) were positive for enterovirus; 3 had received oral polio vaccine.

CONCLUSIONS

Nonpolio EV infections commonly cause fever in infants </=90 days of age. Rates of EV positivity are low in afebrile, unimmunized infants. The use of PCR to identify febrile infants with nonpolio EV infections may decrease length of hospital stay, unnecessary antibiotic administration, and charges.

Investigation of an outbreak of vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium in a low prevalence university hospital

BACKGROUND

Until 1995, there were no cases of vancomycin resistant enterococcus (VRE) identified at our university hospital. From May 1995 to August 1996, we investigated a cluster of 10 cases of phenotypic class Van B Enterococcus faecium.

METHODS

Patients were matched with controls who were on the same unit for at least 7 days prior to the case developing VRE. Control patients were age and sex matched if possible, and had duration of hospitalization at least as long as the number of days it took the patient to become VRE positive. We analyzed 16 independent risk factors using Epi-info version 6. Environmental cultures were obtained in the MICU where 5 of the patients were located. All 10 patient isolates and environmental isolates were analyzed by pulsed field gel electrophoresis (PFGE).

RESULTS

PFGE confirmed the genetic relatedness of all 10 patient isolates and environmental isolates. The VRE-positive group was more likely to be immunosuppressed and to have exposure to 3 physicians. In the MICU, significant, P < 0.05) risk factors for VRE were higher Apache scores, location adjacent to a VRE case, duration of vancomycin and amino-glycoside use, duration of invasive catheter use, and diarrhea. Among the VRE-positive environmental cultures was a blood pressure cuff wash that was used on several patients.

CONCLUSION

We hypothesize that a VRE strain was introduced into our hospital environment and was spread by personnel or contaminated equipment. As a consequence of this study, a hospital-wide VRE policy was implemented.

Comparison of various in vitro susceptibility methods for testing Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

A total of 57 clinical isolates were screened by disk diffusion for a related pharmacodynamic study. Testing was performed using National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards guidelines, except that results were interpreted at 16 to 18 h and 48 h. Of the 57 isolates, 19 were randomly chosen for additional comparative susceptibility testing of five methods (disk diffusion, Etest, Alamar colorimetric broth microdilution, Vitek, and MicroScan) and an in-house broth microdilution method. The two diffusion methods (disk and Etest) had the closest correlation. The commercial broth microdilution methods and the in-house microdilution method generated inconsistent results for all agents except trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Vitek compared poorly with both diffusion and microbroth dilution methods. The most significant discrepancies were evident with all methods when the incubation period was extended to 48 h. When results were interpreted at 48 h, the incidence of resistance for all bactericidal agents was approximately double the resistance observed at 16 to 18 h. The bacteriostatic agents, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and doxycycline, demonstrated the greatest in vitro activity and were least influenced by extended incubation with diffusion methods. Because correlative in vivo and in vitro studies have not revealed an effective therapeutic regimen for serious S. maltophilia infections, susceptibility results with all testing methods should be interpreted with caution when choosing therapy for patients with life-threatening infections. Susceptibility testing for this heterogeneous group remains controversial and routine testing, with the possible exception of doxycycline (or minocycline) and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, should be avoided. Our data support that if testing is done with bactericidal agents, consideration should be given to interpretation after 48-h incubation.

Risks associated with removal of ventricular epicardial pacing wires after cardiac surgery

BACKGROUND: Epicardial pacing wires are routinely used for the diagnosis and treatment of bradyarrhythmias after cardiac surgery. The frequency of arrhythmias during removal of the wires is unknown, and methods of removal vary among institutions. OBJECTIVES: To describe the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias during removal of epicardial pacing wires from the right ventricle, to determine variables that are predictive of ventricular arrhythmias during wire removal, and to describe patients' perceptions of wire removal. METHODS: A convenience sample of 145 patients who had undergone cardiac surgery was studied during the course of 1 year. Electrocardiographic and vital signs were recorded throughout wire removal. Patients' records were reviewed for variables that could predict the occurrence of arrhythmias during wire removal: laboratory values, history of arrhythmias, medications, medical history, postoperative course, and pain reported by the patient. RESULTS: Sixty-six percent of patients had one premature ventricular contraction or more while the ventricular wires were being removed. Seven percent of patients had nonsustained ventricular tachycardia during wire removal. Patients who had repeat cardiac surgery had significantly more nonsustained ventricular tachycardia than did all other patients (P &lt; .01). Only a history of heart failure (P &lt; .02) was a significant predictor of premature ventricular contractions during wire removal. On a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain), the mean rating of pain intensity reported by patients was 2.39 (SD = 2.77). CONCLUSION: Patients may be at risk for ventricular arrhythmias during removal of epicardial pacing wires. Findings support the need for electrocardiographic monitoring while pacing wires are being removed.

Risks associated with removal of ventricular epicardial pacing wires after cardiac surgery

BACKGROUND

Epicardial pacing wires are routinely used for the diagnosis and treatment of bradyarrhythmias after cardiac surgery. The frequency of arrhythmias during removal of the wires is unknown, and methods of removal vary among institutions.

OBJECTIVES

To describe the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias during removal of epicardial pacing wires from the right ventricle, to determine variables that are predictive of ventricular arrhythmias during wire removal, and to describe patients' perceptions of wire removal.

METHODS

A convenience sample of 145 patients who had undergone cardiac surgery was studied during the course of 1 year. Electrocardiographic and vital signs were recorded throughout wire removal. Patients' records were reviewed for variables that could predict the occurrence of arrhythmias during wire removal: laboratory values, history of arrhythmias, medications, medical history, postoperative course, and pain reported by the patient.

RESULTS

Sixty-six percent of patients had one premature ventricular contraction or more while the ventricular wires were being removed. Seven percent of patients had nonsustained ventricular tachycardia during wire removal. Patients who had repeat cardiac surgery had significantly more nonsustained ventricular tachycardia than did all other patients (P < .01). Only a history of heart failure (P < .02) was a significant predictor of premature ventricular contractions during wire removal. On a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain), the mean rating of pain intensity reported by patients was 2.39 (SD = 2.77).

CONCLUSION

Patients may be at risk for ventricular arrhythmias during removal of epicardial pacing wires. Findings support the need for electrocardiographic monitoring while pacing wires are being removed.

Enhancement of the AMPLICOR enterovirus PCR test with a coprecipitant

The incorporation of a commercially available coprecipitant into the AMPLICOR enterovirus PCR test specimen preparation enhanced the sensitivity and reproducibility of this assay. Fifty-five previously tested archived cerebrospinal fluids (CSF) specimens were tested in a blind study in duplicate with and without Pellet Paint coprecipitant (Novagen, Inc., Madison, Wis.). Of these specimens, 26 had previously been determined to be positive and 29 had previously been determined to be negative. All previously positive CSF specimens were positive when Pellet Paint was used and only 18 were positive without Pellet Paint. No previously negative specimens were positive on repeat testing with or without Pellet Paint. The background signal was not affected by the addition of Pellet Paint. These data support the utility of a coprecipitant in minimizing false-negative results.

Evaluation of the Abbott LCx ligase chain reaction assay for detection of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in urine and genital swab specimens from a sexually transmitted disease clinic population

The Abbott LCx ligase chain reaction (LCR) assay for the simultaneous detection of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae was evaluated by using swab and urine specimens from 562 patients. C. trachomatis results by LCR were compared to those by the Gen-Probe PACE 2 assay, whereas N. gonorrhoeae results by LCR were compared to those by culture. The Gen-Probe and LCR assays were performed according to the manufacturers' instructions. Gram-negative diplococci growing on modified Thayer-Martin medium were confirmed as N. gonorrhoeae by the GonoGen II assay. Supplemental data analysis was performed by major outer membrane protein PCR for C. trachomatis and probes for pilin gene detection for N. gonorrhoeae. A true-positive result for each pathogen was defined as a positive result for all three or two of three assays. Overall agreement among the six assays was 94.8%. C. trachomatis prevalence was 16.2%; N. gonorrhoeae prevalence was 5.5%. The overall sensitivity and specificity, respectively, for each test (after supplemental data analysis) were as follows: for C. trachomatis, Gen-Probe, 65.9 and 100%; LCR on urine, 90.1 and 100%; LCR on swab specimens, 96.7 and 100%; and for N. gonorrhoeae, culture, 80.6 and 100%; LCR on urine, 93.5 and 99.8%; and LCR on swab specimens, 96.8 and 100%. For women, the N. gonorrhoeae culture was very insensitive compared to its performance in men (58.3 versus 94.7%, respectively). For C. trachomatis, the Gen-Probe assay's sensitivity was lower for men than for women (62.3 versus 71.1%, respectively). The sensitivity for C. trachomatis detection by LCR on urethral and cervical swab specimens was 96.2 and 97.4% for men and women, respectively. For men, swab results were slightly better than urine results for both pathogens (sensitivity for C. trachomatis in swab and urine specimens, 96.2 and 92.5%, respectively; sensitivity for N. gonorrhoeae in swab and urine specimens, 100 and 94.7%, respectively), while for women, cervical swabs were superior in sensitivity to urine samples for detecting C. trachomatis (swab, 97.4%; urine, 81.6%) and equivalent for N. gonorrhoeae (swab, 92.3%; urine, 91.6%). The LCx LCR appears to be both sensitive and specific for the detection of C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae when performed on urine or genital swab samples. Swab samples had better sensitivity than urine samples for the detection of both pathogens.

Role of the microbiology laboratory in the diagnosis of lower respiratory tract infections

The appropriate use of the clinical microbiology laboratory for diagnosing lower respiratory tract infections is controversial. As in clinical care, it is crucial to categorize the presenting illness properly as acute bronchitis, an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, or nosocomial pneumonia if diagnostic efforts to establish a microbial etiology are to be productive for the individual patient and affordable to society. The greatest potential benefit of microbiological investigations lies in the etiologic diagnosis of pneumonia. For community-acquired pneumonia, evaluation of a gram-stained smear of sputum in terms of both quality and microorganisms present can help guide initial therapy as well as aid interpretation of subsequent culture results. As discussed in this review, the role of the clinical microbiology laboratory in the etiologic diagnosis of nosocomial and complicated pneumonias is more extensive and, in addition to evaluation of respiratory secretions, may include cultures of blood, pleural fluid, and specimens obtained by bronchoscopy. However, a prerequisite for the use of all currently available tests is their deployment for patients with clinical and radiographic evidence of pneumonia.

Rapid lysis of gram-positive cocci for pulsed-field gel electrophoresis using achromopeptidase

To adapt pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) to a busy clinical laboratory, we evaluated the use of achromopeptidase (ACP) as the sole agent for lysis of a variety of gram-positive cocci. Growth in an appropriate broth media was adjusted to a 3.0 McFarland density before aliquotting for washing and plug preparation. ACP incorporated into the agarose plugs, or added to the buffer solution, lysed cells in < 1 h when suspended in a Tris-NaCl buffer. Two 30-min washes in a Tris-EDTA buffer were sufficient to remove cellular debris without additional deproteination. Final PFGE results were obtained in approximately 48 h, including the initial broth subculturing.

Susceptibility of beta-hemolytic streptococci to nine antimicrobial agents among four medical centers in Salt Lake City, Utah, USA

A multicenter study was performed to evaluate the susceptibility of beta-hemolytic streptococci to nine antimicrobial agents. MICs were performed in cation-supplemented Mueller-Hinton broth with 3.5% lysed sheep red blood cells according to NCCLS guidelines. A total of 646 isolates were tested: 300 (46%) group A; 170 (26%) group B; 38 (6%) group C, 35 (5%) group F; 83 (17%) group G; and 20 (3%) nongroupable. Six percent of the total isolates were resistant to one or more of the antibiotics tested. Approximately 7% of 387 strains from the University of Utah Hospital and Clinics were resistant to erythromycin. Four isolates were resistant to clindamycin. Six strains (3%) from Primary Children's Medical Center (207 tested) were resistant to one or more of the macrolides. Resistance was rare at the LDS Hospital and the Salt Lake Veteran's Affairs Hospital. Overall, resistance among beta-hemolytic streptococci in this geographic location does not seem to be a significant problem, except at the tertiary care university hospital.

Characterization of endemic strains of Shigella sonnei by use of plasmid DNA analysis and pulsed-field gel electrophoresis to detect patterns of transmission

Shigellosis is hyperendemic in Utah. Most isolates are Shigella sonnei, making it difficult to identify epidemiologic clustering. To better define transmission, molecular markers and epidemiologic data were examined for 90 cases. Plasmid analysis and pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) of the S. sonnei isolates identified 11 and 4 patterns, respectively. Plasmid pattern I infections occurred in 8 day care centers over a 6-month period, suggesting spread between centers. Plasmid pattern III was isolated from children at 3 additional centers and pattern IV was associated with another day care center, suggesting different outbreaks. By PFGE, plasmid groups I and XI appeared identical, as were plasmid groups II and V; plasmid group X had a unique pattern. Plasmid groups III, IV, and VII-IX were closely related PFGE subtypes. Both plasmid analysis and PFGE allow better characterization of S. sonnei transmission patterns of "endemic" strains and could lead to improved control measures.

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia: emergence of multidrug-resistant strains during therapy and in an in vitro pharmacodynamic chamber model

Emergence of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia as a nosocomial pathogen is becoming increasingly apparent. Pleiotropic resistance characterizes S. maltophilia. Furthermore, a slow growth rate and an increased mutation rate generate discordance between in vitro susceptibility testing and clinical outcome. Despite original susceptibility, drug-resistant strains of S. maltophilia are often recovered from patients receiving beta-lactams, quinolones, or aminoglycosides. Given the disparity among various in vitro susceptibility methods, this study incorporated a unique pharmacodynamic model to more accurately characterize the bacterial time-kill curves and mutation rates of four clinical isolates of S. maltophilia following exposure to simulated multidose regimens of ceftazidime, ciprofloxacin, gentamicin, and ticarcillin-clavulanate. Time-kill data demonstrated regrowth of S. maltophilia with all four agents. With the exception of ticarcillin-clavulanate, viable bacterial counts at the end of 24 h exceeded the starting inoculum. Ciprofloxacin only reduced bacterial counts by less than 1.0 log prior to rapid bacterial regrowth. Resistant mutant strains, identical to their parent strain by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, were observed following exposure to each class of antibiotic. Mutant strains also had distinct susceptibility patterns. These data are consistent with previous reports which suggest that S. maltophilia, despite susceptibility data that imply that the organism is sensitive, develops multiple forms of resistance quickly and against several classes of antimicrobial agents. Standard in vitro susceptibility methods are not completely reliable for detecting resistant S. maltophilia strains; and therefore, interpretation of these results should be done with caution. In vivo studies are needed to determine optimal therapy against S. maltophilia infections.

Rapid detection of the staphylococcal mecA gene from BACTEC blood culture bottles by the polymerase chain reaction

A rapid polymerase chain reaction (PCR) method for the direct detection of the staphylococcal mecA gene from BACTEC blood culture bottles (Becton Dickinson, Sparks, MD) was developed. Published primer sequences and sample preparation using Achromopeptidase for cell lysis were adapted to the use of the Idaho Technology Air Thermocycler 1605 (Idaho Technologies, Idaho Falls, ID). The method was validated with 80 strains of coagulase-positive and coagulase-negative geographically diverse methicillin-resistant and susceptible isolates of staphylococci. There was a 100% correlation between the PCR results and the results of standard susceptibility testing methods. From BACTEC 9240 blood cultures, mixed aliquots of blood and broth containing gram-positive cocci in clusters were centrifuged at low speed to sediment red blood cells. After additional centrifugation and wash steps, PCR was performed on the resuspended pellet. The turnaround time from initial Gram stain detection of positive BACTEC bottles to PCR amplicon detection by agarose gel electrophoresis is less than 3 hours. In a clinical evaluation of 181 blood culture isolates, there was a 99% correlation with standard susceptibility results for Staphylococcus aureus. Discrepant results for Staphylococcus aureus isolates were verified by a Mueller Hinton plate supplemented with 6 microg/mL of oxacillin and 2% sodium chloride. For coagulase-negative staphylococci, the PCR method detected an additional seven resistant isolates that were reported by the Vitek as susceptible. Coagulase-negative staphylococcal susceptibility results that were in disagreement with the PCR assay were confirmed by the disk-diffusion method. This procedure is accurate, rapid and fits well into laboratory work flow. Rapid detection of the mecA gene on positive blood culture vials has become a routine test in the authors' clinical microbiology laboratory.

Rapid detection of group B streptococcal colonization of the genital tract by a commercial optical immunoassay

The performance of a commercial optical immunoassay (OIA) was compared at two institutions with that of routine agar and broth culture methods for the detection of group B streptococcal (GBS) colonization of the genital tract. The Strep B OIA (Bio Star, USA) was used to test 962 vaginal swabs from pregnant women for the presence of GBS antigen. The prevalence of GBS vaginal colonization in this population was 22.4%. The OIA results were compared with those of culture on trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood (TSA) and broth enhanced culture (Lim broth). Sensitivity and specificity values of the OIA method compared to TSA culture alone were 82.5% and 91.8%, respectively. The sensitivity of the OIA method was equivalent to that of TSA culture (62.4% vs. 64.4%; p > 0.5, chi 2 = 0.01) when the data were compared with broth culture. The extent of colonization affected the sensitivity of the OIA method: 100% of 4+, 94% of 3+, 96% of 2+, and 63% of 1+ TSA plates were detected by the OIA test. The commercial OIA method demonstrated sensitivity equivalent to that of TSA culture for the detection of GBS colonization. The OIA test offers two additional advantages over culture: reduced time required to obtain results (30 min vs. days) and the ability to detect GBS antigen in samples with compromised viability. The results of this study suggest that the Strep B OIA test can be a useful diagnostic tool in the management of early-onset GBS disease.

Comparison of the Murex Candida albicans CA50 test with germ tube production for identification of C. albicans

A total of 502 yeast isolates were tested with the 30-min MUREX Candida albicans CA50 (Norcross, GA) test for presumptive identification of C. albicans. The results were compared with the standard 2-h germ tube test, which was the reference standard. Of the 502 isolates, 316 were C. albicans and 186 were non-C. albicans. Identifications were based on germ tube reactions; the API20C and chlamydospore agars were used when discrepant results persisted between the germ tube and MUREX test after repeat testing of the MUREX method. A total of 16 C. albicans gave negative results on initial testing with the MUREX test but were interpreted as positive when repeated. Three germ tube negative yeasts initially tested positive with the MUREX but were negative when repeated. Two additional yeast isolates gave incorrect results with the MUREX, even with repeat testing: C. albicans and C. lusitaniae. The initial sensitivity and specificity for the MUREX C. albicans CA50 test were 94.6% and 97.8%, respectively. As an addition to the study, two fetal bovine sera were compared for production of germ tubes; fetal bovine serum and Fetal Clone II. The testing found them to be in 100% agreement.

Comparison of MIDI Sherlock system and pulsed-field gel electrophoresis in characterizing strains of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus from a recent hospital outbreak

An outbreak of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infections at the University of Utah Health Sciences Center occurred over a 7-month period. While the isolates phenotypically appeared to be similar in gross morphology and have similar Vitek antibiotic susceptibility patterns, two additional methods of strain characterization were evaluated to enhance the epidemiological investigation: pulsed-field gel electrophoresis and gas chromatography with the MIDI Sherlock system. Sherlock uses gas chromatography to qualitatively and quantitatively analyze the cellular fatty acid composition of organisms and creates two-dimensional plots based on principal-component analysis to define groups of closely related organisms. All isolates were also evaluated by digesting their chromosomal DNAs with the low-frequency-cutting enzyme SmaI and separating the restriction fragments by contour-clamped homogeneous electric field gel electrophoresis. Sample preparation for this pulsed-field gel electrophoresis included a novel cell lysis procedure involving achromopeptidase, greatly reducing the turnaround time. Isolates tested were recovered from the following: 45 suspected outbreak patients, 6 hospitalized patients believed to be unrelated to the outbreak, 6 patients from outside the hospital, and one health care practitioner implicated in the outbreak. Of 45 phenotypically similar suspect strains, 43 clustered tightly on the Sherlock two-dimensional plot. All outbreak patient isolates were also identical by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis with the exception of the same two outliers identified by Sherlock. In this epidemiologic investigation, we found an excellent correlation between the Sherlock and pulsed-field gel electrophoresis results for strain characterization of methicillin-resistant S. aureus.

Comparison of "gram-sure" with vancomycin disks in distinguishing between gram-negative and gram-positive rods

A study was performed to compare Gram-Sure (JRGA Diagnostics, Rancho Dominguez, CA) with vancomycin disk susceptibility (5 micrograms and 30 micrograms) for clarification of the Gram reaction. Eighty-eight isolates representing 14 gram-negative and gram-positive genera were tested. Gram-Sure was superior to vancomycin susceptibility as a predictor of the Gram reaction in a select group of difficult organisms.

False-positive cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination caused by disinfectants and soaps

Five disinfectants or soaps were tested to determine if any could be responsible for false-positive results obtained with the Latex-Crypto Antigen Detection System kit (Immuno-Mycologics, Inc., Norman, Okla.). Three disinfectants or soaps (Derma soap, 7X, and Bacdown) produced false-positive agglutination after repeated washing of ring slides during testing of a known negative cerebrospinal fluid specimen.

Surveillance cultures in bone marrow transplant recipients: worthwhile or wasteful?

A prospective study of the value of surveillance cultures was performed in a bone marrow transplant (BMT) unit among 48 consecutive patients. All patients were admitted to laminar airflow or high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtered rooms, maintained on reduced microbial diets and received oral non-absorbable antibiotics. With the onset of neutropenia, all patients received imipenem/cilastatin and 17 patients received low-dose amphotericen B 0.1 mg/kg/day. Pre-transplant and weekly post-transplant cultures of the stool, throat and urine were obtained on all patients. Nasal and vaginal cultures were performed on 26 patients. Sixteen patients developed 23 documented infections. The sensitivity of surveillance cultures for all infections was 38%, specificity 25%, positive predictive value 20% and negative predictive value 44%. When stratified by organisms, the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value and negative value were: Gram positive infections, 33%, 36%, 11%, 70%, Gram negative infections, 17%, 88%, 17%, 88%; fungal infections 37%, 50%, 11%, 75%; and Candida albicans, 100%, 57%, 14%, 100%. These data suggest that surveillance cultures may be useful to exclude C. albicans infections but are of limited value in predicting other types of infections in recipients of BMT.

Laboratory evaluation of urinary tract infections in an ambulatory clinic

A 4-month evaluation of ambulatory patients with a suspicion of a urinary tract infection was performed. Specific objectives included assessment of five urinary screening methods, reevaluation of the necessity of the phenylethyl alcohol plate (PEA), and cost-effectiveness of screening for low colony count bacteriuria. Urine samples were collected as midstream, clean-caught specimens. A total of 142 samples, 87 from 79 symptomatic patients and 55 negative controls, were evaluated. All urine specimens were cultured using a 0.01 mL loop and a 0.001 mL loop onto Columbia sheep blood agar, MacConkey agar, and PEA agar. Twenty-four specimens (17%) were sterile, 64 (45%) were contaminated, and 54 (38%) were infected. Five urine screening methods were performed. These tests and their associated sensitivity and specificity are as follows. The Chemstrip 9 (Behring, Inc., Somerville, NJ) for leukocyte esterase and nitrate, 67%, 98%; microscopic analysis on spun urine, 79%, 93%; methylene blue stain for pyuria, 60%, 99%; Gram stain for pyuria, 45%, 93%; Gram stain for bacteriuria, 65%, 75%; and the URISCREEN (Analytab Products, Plainview, NY), 92%, 89%. Inclusion of a PEA plate for isolation of gram-positive organisms provided no additional information. Routine culture of urine samples at 10(-2) mL increased the contamination rate by 19%.

Interaction between Pseudomonas aeruginosa and host defenses in cystic fibrosis

The major causes of morbidity and mortality in cystic fibrosis are chronic pulmonary obstruction and infection. Mucoid Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the primary pathogen in up to 90% of these patients. Once Pseudomonas organisms colonize the airways, they are virtually never eradicated. No defect in systemic host defense has been elucidated, however, several mechanisms contribute to the breakdown in host defenses that allow persistence of this organism in the endobronchial space. These mechanisms involve both bacterial adaptation to an unfavorable host environment and impaired host response. P aeruginosa adapts to the host by expressing excessive mucoid exopolysaccharide and a less virulent form of lipopolysaccharide. These features make it less likely to cause systemic infection, yet still enable it to resist local host defenses. Mucociliary clearance becomes impaired due to abnormal viscoelastic properties of sputum, squamous metaplasia of the respiratory epithelium, and bronchiectasis. Despite a brisk antibody response to a variety of Pseudomonas antigens, several defects in antibody-mediated opsonophagocytosis have been identified. These include (1) development of antibody isotypes that are suboptimal at promoting phagocytosis, (2) formation of immune complexes that inhibit phagocytosis, and (3) proteolytic fragmentation of immunoglobulins in the endobronchial space. Complement-mediated opsonophagocytosis is also compromised by proteolytic cleavage of complement receptors from the cell surface of neutrophils and complement opsonins from the surface of Pseudomonas. The resultant chronic inflammation and infection lead to eventual obliteration of the airways.

Histoplasmosis as a cause of pleural effusion in the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

Disseminated histoplasmosis is an increasingly important opportunistic infection in patients with the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). We report the first case of histoplasmosis as a cause of pleural effusion in a patient with AIDS. Recognition of the typical intracellular yeast on a Wright-Giemsa stained smear of the pleural fluid cells allowed prompt initiation of amphotericin B.