Fusariosis in burn patients: A systematic review of case reports

Burns can cause skin damage, facilitating the entry of fungi and other microorganisms into the body, leading to infections. Fusarium is a fungus capable of infecting individuals with burn injuries. Diagnosing and treating Fusarium infections in burn patients can be challenging due to the manifestation of nonspecific symptoms. This study aims to investigate case reports and case series from published literature describing Fusarium infection in burned patients, in order to assess treatment regimens, clinical outcomes, and make recommendations for future management. We conducted searches on Web of Science, PubMed, ScienceDirect, and Medline for all case reports and case series containing keywords 'Burn', 'Burns', 'Burned', 'Fusarium', or 'Fusariosis' in the title or abstract. All burn patients who developed Fusarium fungal infections between January 1974 and March 2023 were included in the study. Demographic and clinical data were analyzed retrospectivity. The final analysis incorporates 24 case reports encompassing a total of 87 burn patients with Fusarium infection. Patient ages ranged from one to 85 years, with the majority being male (53%). The median percentage of burn surface area was 78%, and the skin in the face, upper limbs, and lower limbs were the most commonly infected sites. Fungal infections appeared around 10 days after the burn injury on average. The majority of the patients were identified through culture or histopathology. The Fusarium dimerum species complex, which was found in nine patients, was the most frequently identified Fusarium species complex. Amphotericin B was the most preferred treatment drug, followed by voriconazole, and 62% of patients underwent debridement. In our study, 23 patients (37%) died from fungal infections. Implementing early and effective treatment protocols targeting Fusarium spp. in burn treatment units can significantly reduce mortality rates. It is critical to enhance the understanding of fusariosis epidemiology and emphasize the importance of maintaining a high clinical suspicion for this condition in burn patients.

Recurrent gastric amphicrine tumor with neuroendocrine and pancreatic acinar cell differentiation and somatic MEN1 inactivation arisen during immunotherapy

Amphicrine neoplasms (ANs) are poorly understood epithelial malignancies composed of cells with co-existing exocrine-neuroendocrine features. Here, we report a recurrent mucin-producing gastric amphicrine tumor co-expressing neuroendocrine (chromogranin-A, synaptophysin, and CD56) and pancreatic acinar cell (BCL10 and trypsin) markers, arisen in a 64-year-old woman during adjuvant immunotherapy for melanoma. Ki-67 was < 2%. The gastric background context was atrophic gastritis. Next-generation sequencing showed MEN1 mutation (p.P71fs*42) coupled with loss of heterozygosity. The key lessons were as follows: (1) gastric ANs can show the co-existence of exocrine mucin-producing elements with neuroendocrine and pancreatic acinar differentiation; (2) they may represent a new entity arising in the context of atrophic gastritis and during immunotherapy; (3) they should be considered in the diagnostic workup of gastric neuroendocrine tumors; and (4) their molecular profile can show striking similarities with well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors. These findings may be of help to improve the knowledge and the biological taxonomy of ANs.

Characterization and digital spatial deconvolution of the immune microenvironment of intraductal oncocytic papillary neoplasms (IOPN) of the pancreas

Intraductal oncocytic papillary neoplasm (IOPN) of the pancreas is a distinct entity from intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms (IPMNs) and is considered one of the precursor lesions of pancreatic cancer. Through immunohistochemistry (IHC) and an artificial intelligence (AI)-based approach, this study aims at characterizing its immune microenvironment. Whole-slide IHC was performed on a cohort of 15 IOPNs, 2 of which harboring an associated adenocarcinoma. The following markers were tested: CD3, CD4, CD8, CD20, CD68, CD163, PD-1, PD-L1, MLH1, PMS2, MSH2, and MSH6. The main findings can be summarized as follows: (i) CD8+ T lymphocytes were the predominant immune cells (p < 0.01); (ii) the vast majority of macrophages were concurrently CD68+ and CD163+; (iii) all tumors showed an activated PD-1/PD-L1 axis, but none had mismatch repair deficiency; (iv) AI-based analysis revealed the presence of 2 distinct regions in each case, namely, Re1, localized at the center of the tumor, and Re2, located at tumor periphery; (v) the infiltrating component of the 2 invasive IOPNs showed a smaller extent of Re1 and a reduced rate of CD4+ cells, as well as a larger extent of Re2 and increased rate of CD8+ cells. IOPNs are lesions enriched in immune cells, with a predominance of CD8+ T lymphocytes and class 2 macrophages. Differently from IPMN-oncogenesis, the progression towards invasive carcinoma is accompanied by an increased rate of CD8+ lymphocytes. This finding may suggest the presence of an active self-immune surveillance in invasive IOPNs, potentially explaining, at least in part, the excellent survival rate of IOPN patients.

Transcriptome analysis of primary sporadic neuroendocrine tumours of the intestine identified three different molecular subgroups

BACKGROUND

Intestinal neuroendocrine tumours (I-NETs) represent a non-negligible entity among intestinal neoplasms, with metastatic spreading usually present at the time of diagnosis. In this context, effective molecular actionable targets are still lacking. Through transcriptome analysis, we aim at refining the molecular taxonomy of I-NETs, also providing insights towards the identification of new therapeutic vulnerabilities.

MATERIALS AND METHODS

A retrospective series of 38 primary sporadic, surgically-resected I-NETs were assessed for transcriptome profiling of 20,815 genes.

RESULTS

Transcriptome analysis detected 643 highly expressed genes. Unsupervised hierarchical clustering, differential expression analysis and gene set enriched analysis identified three different tumour clusters (CL): CL-A, CL-B, CL-C. CL-A showed the overexpression of ARGFX, BIRC8, NANOS2, and SSTR4 genes. Its most characterizing signatures were those related to cell-junctions, and activation of mTOR and WNT pathway. CL-A was also enriched in T CD8 + lymphocytes. CL-B showed the overexpression of PCSK1, QPCT, ST18, and TPH1 genes. Its most characterizing signatures were those related to adipogenesis, neuroendocrine metabolism, and splice site machinery-related processes. CL-B was also enriched in T CD4 + lymphocytes. CL-C showed the overexpression of ALB, ANG, ARG1, and HP genes. Its most characterizing signatures were complement/coagulation and xenobiotic metabolism. CL-C was also enriched in M1/2 macrophages. These CL-based differences may have therapeutic implications in refining the management of I-NET patients. At last, we described a specific gene-set for differentiating I-NET from pancreatic NET.

DISCUSSION

Our data represent an additional step for refining the molecular taxonomy of I-NET, identifying novel transcriptome subgroups with different biology and therapeutic opportunities.

"Pure" hepatoid tumors of the pancreas harboring CTNNB1 somatic mutations: a new entity among solid pseudopapillary neoplasms

Hepatoid tumors (HTs) represent a rare group of neoplasms that are histologically similar to hepatocellular carcinoma but arise outside the liver. The current World Health Organization classification recognizes the hepatoid morphology of pancreatic tumors only as a possible variant of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC). Here, we describe two cases of "pure" HT of the pancreas showing common features and characterized by indolent biological behavior. These tumors were roundish nodules with pushing borders, hyaline globules, and pure hepatoid histology; they were diffusely positive for β-catenin and LEF1 on immunohistochemistry. At next-generation sequencing, both neoplasms harbored only one pathogenic somatic mutation that affected the CTNNB1 gene at exon 3 and showed a loss of heterozygosity on chromosomes 18 and 21. By integrating macroscopic and microscopic features, along with their molecular profiles, we advocate that such tumors represent a distinct entity from PDAC and should be considered a new variant of solid pseudopapillary neoplasms. The recognition of this new neoplastic category may have immediate implications not only for tumor taxonomy but also for clinical practice.

Physiological, biochemical, and anatomical responses of Araucaria araucana seedlings to controlled water restriction

Water stress triggers acclimation responses and can damage plants, which varies by species and stress levels. Ongoing climate change is projected to result in longer and more intense water stress conditions leading to an alarming increase in drought-induced forest decline. The aim of this study was to evaluate the physiological responses of leaves and stem wood anatomy from Araucaria araucana pot-grown three-year old seedlings, a conifer tree from northwestern Patagonia. Plants were subjected to moderate and severe water restriction regimes and compared to well-watered controls. Severe water stress reduced relative leaf water content and triggered an accumulation of free proline in leaves, regardless of age. Epicuticular wax extrusions increased in apical leaf stomata while photosynthetic pigments decreased, resulting in differential oxidative damage. The concentration of phenolic compounds was not affected by water restrictions. Plants exposed to restricted water regimes showed diminished middle leaf biomass and expansion (~60% of total leaves), increased stem wood density, and experienced 7% and 30% mortality rates under moderate and severe water stress, respectively. Our findings suggest that under moderate water stress, analogous to short-term droughts, A. araucana seedlings activate physiological mechanisms that allow them to withstand short periods of drought, while more severe water stress and longer droughts can be severely harmful.

Epithelial-mesenchymal transition in undifferentiated carcinoma of the pancreas with and without osteoclast-like giant cells

Undifferentiated carcinoma (UC) and undifferentiated carcinoma with osteoclast-like giant cells (UCOGC) are peculiar variants of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC), characterized by hypercellularity and absence of glandular patterns. The inflammatory microenvironment is peculiar in UCOGC, since it is dominated by macrophages and osteoclast-like giant cells. However, from a molecular point of view, both UC and UCOGC are very similar to conventional PDAC, sharing alterations of the most common genetic drivers. Clinically, UC usually show a worse prognosis, whereas UCOGC may show a better prognosis if it is not associated with a PDAC component. To highlight potential biological differences between these entities, we investigated the role of the epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT) in UC and UCOGC. Specifically, we analyzed the immunohistochemical expression of three well-known EMT markers, namely Twist1, Snai2, and E-cadherin, in 16 cases of UCOGC and 10 cases of UC. We found that EMT is more frequently activated in UC (10/10 cases) than in UCOGC (8/16 cases; p = 0.05). Furthermore, in UCOGC, EMT was activated with a higher frequency in cases with an associated PDAC component. Snai2 was the most frequently and strongly expressed marker in both tumor types (10/10 UC, 8/16 UCOGC), and its expression was higher in UC than in UCOGC (mean immunohistochemical score: 4.8 in UC vs. 2.1 in UCOGC, p < 0.01). Our results shed new light on the biology of UC and UCOGC: EMT appeared as a more important process in UC, and Snai2 emerged as a central EMT effector in this setting.

CD200 expression is a feature of solid pseudopapillary neoplasms of the pancreas

CD200 has been recently indicated as a robust marker of well-differentiated neuroendocrine neoplasms. Here, we evaluate its role in differential diagnosis of solid pancreatic neoplasms. We immunostained for CD200 22 solid pseudopapillary neoplasms (SPNs), 8 acinar carcinomas (ACs), 2 pancreatoblastomas (PBs), 138 neuroendocrine tumors (PanNETs), and 48 ductal adenocarcinomas. All SPNs showed strong cytoplasmic and membranous staining for CD200, while only one case of AC had focal positivity. The two PBs showed focal CD200 positivity, mainly located in squamoid nests. The vast majority of PanNETs (96%) showed strong cytoplasmic and membranous staining for CD200, whereas all PDACs were negative. As both PanNETs and SPNs express CD200, it has no role in the differential diagnosis between these two entities.

PD-1, PD-L1, and CD163 in pancreatic undifferentiated carcinoma with osteoclast-like giant cells: expression patterns and clinical implications

Undifferentiated carcinoma with osteoclast-like giant cells (UCOGC), a variant of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC), has a striking genetic similarity to PDAC but a significantly improved overall survival. We hypothesize that this difference could be due to the immune response to the tumor, and as such, we investigated the expression of PD-1, PD-L1, and CD163 in a series of UCOGC. To this aim, 27 pancreatic UCOGCs (11 pure and 16 PDAC-associated), 5 extrapancreatic tumors with osteoclast-like giant cells and 10 pancreatic anaplastic carcinomas were immunostained using antibodies against PD-1, PD-L1, and CD163. In pancreatic UCOGCs, PD-L1 was expressed in neoplastic cells of 17 (63%) of 27 cases, more often in cases with an associated PDAC (P = .04). Expression of PD-L1 was associated with poor prognosis, confirmed by multivariate analysis: patients with PD-L1-positive UCOGCs had a risk of all-cause mortality that was 3 times higher than did patients with PD-L1-negative UCOGCs (hazard ratio, 3.397; 95% confidence interval, 1.023-18.375; P = .034). PD-L1 expression on tumor cells was also associated with aberrant P53 expression (P = .035). PD-1 was expressed on rare lymphocytes in 12 UCOGCs (44.4%), mainly located at the tumor periphery. CD163 was expressed on histiocytes, with a diffuse and strong staining pattern in all UCOGCs. Extrapancreatic tumors with osteoclast-like giant cells showed very similar staining patterns for the same proteins. Anaplastic carcinomas have some similarities to UCOGCs, but PD-L1 has no prognostic roles. Our results may have important implications for immunotherapeutic strategies in UCOGCs; these tumors may also represent a model for future therapeutic approaches against PDAC.

Pancreatic undifferentiated carcinoma with osteoclast-like giant cells is genetically similar to, but clinically distinct from, conventional ductal adenocarcinoma

Undifferentiated carcinoma of the pancreas with osteoclast-like giant cells (UCOGC) is currently considered a morphologically and clinically distinct variant of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC). In this study, we report clinical and pathological features of a series of 22 UCOGCs, including the whole exome sequencing of eight UCOGCs. We observed that 60% of the UCOGCs contained a well-defined epithelial component and that patients with pure UCOGC had a significantly better prognosis than did those with an UCOGC with an associated epithelial neoplasm. The genetic alterations in UCOGC are strikingly similar to those known to drive conventional PDAC, including activating mutations in the oncogene KRAS and inactivating mutations in the tumor suppressor genes CDKN2A, TP53, and SMAD4. These results further support the classification of UCOGC as a PDAC variant and suggest that somatic mutations are not the determinants of the unique phenotype of UCOGC. Copyright © 2017 Pathological Society of Great Britain and Ireland. Published by John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.

PDX-1 (pancreatic/duodenal homeobox-1 protein 1)

The homeodomain-containing transcription factor pancreatic duodenal homeobox 1 (PDX-1) plays a key role in pancreatic development and β-cell function. It is a major regulator of transcription in pancreatic cells, and transactivates the insulin gene by binding to a specific DNA motif in its promoter region. Glucose also regulates insulin gene transcription through PDX-1. It has been shown that PDX-1 is required for maintaining pancreatic islet functions by activating gene expression and has a dual role in pancreatic development. It initially contributes to pancreatic formation during embryogenesis and subsequently regulates the pancreatic islet cell physiology in mature islet cells. Because of this key role in the embryologic development of the pancreas, PDX-1 expression has been investigated in pancreatic cancer cell lines and human tumors. Moreover, a few reports have described expression of PDX-1 in other human neoplasms and have investigated its potential role in differential diagnosis, but data on normal human tissues are lacking. Understanding the molecular mechanisms of pancreas formation, and especially the function of PDX-1, may contribute to the improved treatment and prevention of debilitating diseases such as diabetes, insulinomas and pancreatic carcinomas. Nevertheless, further studies are needed concerning its possible application in routine practice.

Effects of a pulsatile electrostatic field on ischemic injury to the diabetic foot: evaluation of refractory ulcers

AIMS

The macro- and microcirculation disease, in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), induces ischemic wounds of the lower limbs. We have tried to reduce the aggregation of red blood cells and to improve the O2 supply to the tissues and speed the healing of ulcers in T2DM patients.

METHODS

We enrolled 25 obese subjects without glucose intolerance (group A; BMI greater than 30 kg/m2), 20 obese adults intolerant to glucose (group B) and two subgroups, groups C and D, with T2DM and with leg ulcers. The groups A, B and C were treated with PESF. Body weight, O2 extraction, the capillary pulse, blood pressure and the surface of the ulcers were monitored.

RESULTS

The technique PESF shows to have positive effects on the metabolism, on the reduction of body weight in the groups A and B, increasing extraction of O2 in group C and increase the speed of healing of wounds in group C compared to group D. In group A, there was a significant reduction in systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

CONCLUSIONS

The technique PESF has affected the metabolic processes and the speed of wound healing ulcer in patients with T2DM.

Inventory management

A critical aspect of blood transfusion is the timely provision of high quality blood products. This task remains a significant challenge for many blood services and blood systems reflecting the difficulty of balancing the recruitment of sufficient donors, the optimal utilization of the donor's gift, the increasing safety related restrictions on blood donation, a growing menu of specialized blood products and an ever-growing imperative to increase the efficiency of blood product provision from a cost perspective. As our industry now faces questions about our standard practices including whether or not the age of blood has a negative impact on recipients, it is timely to take a look at our collective inventory management practices. This International Forum represents an effort to get a snap shot of inventory management practices around the world, and to understand the range of different products provided for patients. In addition to sharing current inventory management practices, this Forum is intended to foster an exchange of ideas around where we see our field moving with respect to various issues including specialty products, new technologies, and reducing recipient risk from blood transfusion products.

Comparison of tuberculin skin test and Quantiferon immunological assay for latent tuberculosis infection

BACKGROUND

Correct identification of individuals with latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is a crucial element of the elimination strategy, allowing their adequate treatment. In addition to tuberculin skin test (TST), the Quantiferon test (QFT, based on whole blood gamma-interferon release) had been recently proposed. Aim of the study is to compare this test to TST for identification of LTBI in a non-selected population, in order to verify their value in identifying truly infected individuals (entitled to receive preventive chemotherapy), and to exclude from treatment those having a positive TST for other reasons (e.g. after BCG vaccination).

METHODS

136 consecutive persons (78 males, mean age 34 +/- 9 years) referred to the clinic for TST were recruited (78 born in low--or middle--income countries). Based on their history, the cases were divided into 4 groups: 1) recently traced contacts of whom 18 TST negative and 28 TST positive; 2) 22 screening subjects, all TST negative; 3) BCG vaccinated subjects (14); and 4) 54 subjects already undergoing treatment of LTBI for exposure to TB.

RESULTS

The overall agreement between TST and QFT was 72% (64% in TST positive and 88.4% in TST negative subjects). The proportion of TST positive/QFT negative BCG vaccinated individuals was 23.1%. The K coefficient was 0.474 in recently traced contacts, 0.366 in BCG vaccinated individuals and 0.451 overall.

CONCLUSIONS

The study results suggest that agreement between TST and QFT is lower in TST positive than in negative subjects, being lower in individuals treated for LTBI. Quantiferon does not seem to have brought significant improvement in the diagnosis of LTBI.

HHV-8 and EBV are not commonly found in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

BACKGROUND AND AIM OF THE WORK

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis/Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (IPF/UIP) is a diffuse and progressive lung disease whose pathogenesis is incompletely understood. Recently, the presence of Herpesvirus-specific DNA was detected in the large majority of cases of a series of IPF/UIP and other lung interstitial diseases. We have therefore tested our own IPF/UIP series for the presence of HHV-8 and EBV proteins.

METHODS

We used a variety of sensitive technologies including immunohistochemistry with NCL-HHV8-LNA and EBV-LMP1 antibodies, as well as of EBV RNA (EBER) by in-situ hybridisation; the presence of HHV-8 and EBV DNA was also investigated by means of PCR and subsequent analysis using a microfluidic apparatus.

RESULTS

Despite the good sample quality, immunohistochemical, in-situ hybridisation and PCR results were negative for both EBV and HHV-8.

CONCLUSIONS

We conclude that EBV and HHV-8 are not involved in the pathogenesis of IPF/UIP.

Isolation of a novel sequevar of Mycobacterium flavescens from the synovial fluid of an AIDS patient

This report describes the characterisation of a mycobacterium involved in a case of septic arthritis in an AIDS patient that was treated successfully with specific anti-mycobacterial drugs. The biochemical and cultural features, and the mycolic acid pattern as assessed by high-performance liquid chromatography, were fully compatible with the isolate being Mycobacterium flavescens. However, the isolate's 16S rDNA sequence differed by five nucleotides from the two known sequevars of M. flavescens, thus indicating that this isolate belonged to a new 16S rDNA sequevar.

Proposal to elevate the genetic variant MAC-A, included in the Mycobacterium avium complex, to species rank as Mycobacterium chimaera sp. nov

The possibility that the strains included within the Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC), but not belonging either to M. avium or to Mycobacterium intracellulare, may be members of undescribed taxa, has already been questioned by several taxonomists. A very homogeneous cluster of 12 strains characterized by identical nucleotide sequences both in the 16S rDNA and in the 16S–23S internal transcribed spacer was investigated. Similar strains, previously reported in the literature, had been assigned either to the species M. intracellulare on the basis of the 16S rDNA similarity or to the group of MAC intermediates. However, several phenotypical and epidemiological characteristics seem to distinguish these strains from all other MAC organisms. The unique mycolic acid pattern obtained by HPLC is striking as it is characterized by two clusters of peaks, instead of the three presented by all other MAC organisms. All of the strains have been isolated from humans and all but one came from the respiratory tract of elderly people. The clinical significance of these strains, ascertained for seven patients, seems to suggest an unusually high virulence. The characteristics of all the strains reported in the literature, genotypically identical to the ones described here, seem to confirm our data, without reports of isolations from animals or the environment or, among humans, from AIDS patients. Therefore, an elevation of the MAC variant was proposed and characterized here, with the name Mycobacterium chimaera sp. nov.; this increases the number of species included in the M. avium complex. The type strain is FI-01069T (=CIP 107892T=DSM 44623T).

Evaluation of the fully automated BACTEC MGIT 960 system for testing susceptibility of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to pyrazinamide, streptomycin, isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol and comparison with the radiometric BACTEC 460TB method

The performance of the fully automated BACTEC MGIT 960 (M960) system for the testing of Mycobacterium tuberculosis susceptibility to streptomycin (SM), isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RMP), ethambutol (EMB), and pyrazinamide (PZA) was evaluated with 100 clinical isolates and compared to that of the radiometric BACTEC 460TB (B460) system. The agar proportion method and the B460 system were used as reference methods to resolve the discordant results for SM, INH, RMP, and EMB (a combination known as SIRE) and PZA, respectively. The overall agreements were 96.3% for SIRE and 92% for PZA. For SIRE, a total of 26 discrepancies were found and were resolved in favor of the M960 system in 8 cases and in favor of the B460 system in 18 cases. The M960 system produced 8 very major errors (VME) and 10 major errors (ME), while the B460 system showed 4 VME and 4 ME. No statistically significant differences were found. Both systems exhibited excellent performance, but a higher number of VME was observed with the M960 system at the critical concentrations of EMB and SM. For PZA, a total of eight discrepancies were observed and were resolved in favor of the M960 system in one case and in favor of the B460 system in seven cases; no statistically significant differences were found. The M960 system showed four VME and three ME. The mean times to report overall PZA results and resistant results were 8.2 and 9.8 days, respectively, for the M960 system and 7.4 and 8.1 days, respectively, for the B460 system. Statistically significant differences were found. The mean times to report SIRE results were 8.3 days for the M960 system and 8.2 days for the B460 system. No statistically significant differences were found. Twelve strains tested for SIRE susceptibility and seven strains tested for PZA susceptibility had been reprocessed because of contamination. In conclusion, the M960 system can represent a valid alternative to the B460 for M. tuberculosis susceptibility testing; however, the frequent contamination of the tests needs to be improved.

Constitutive expression of DeltaN-p63alpha isoform in human thymus and thymic epithelial tumours

p63, a member of the p53 family, is involved in the survival and differentiation of reserve/stem cells in different epithelia. To unveil the possible role of p63 in thymic physiology and pathology, we investigated the expression of p63 isoforms in normal thymus, thymomas and other mediastinal tumours. All samples were analysed using immunohistochemistry with three different antibodies: 4A4 antibody recognising all p63 isoforms, p40 antibody reacting only with truncated dominant-negative isoforms (DeltaN-p63) and H-129 antibody recognising all alpha-isoforms. Reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), and real-time PCR analyses were performed on RNA extracted from frozen samples of four thymomas and two primary-mediastinal large-B-cell lymphoma (PMLBCL). In normal thymus, DeltaN-p63alpha was expressed in all cortical and medullary epithelial cells, with decreasing intensity in Hassall's corpuscles. This phenotype was conserved in neoplastic transformation since all 54 investigated thymomas (World Health Organization types A, AB, B1, B2, B3, C) expressed DeltaN-p63alpha (virtually 100% cells). The predominance of DeltaN-p63alpha isoform mRNA was confirmed by real-time PCR. Among other mediastinal tumours, DeltaN-p63alpha was only expressed in those displaying either a stratified epithelial component (teratomas) or epidermoid differentiation (lung carcinoma). Among lymphomas, T-cell-precursor lymphomas did not express p63, whereas most PMLBCL expressed TA-p63alpha (7/8).

Mycobacterium elephantis: not an exceptional finding in clinical specimens

Following the recent report of new 16S rDNA sequences of Mycobacterium elephantis, three clinical strains suspected to belong to such species were investigated using biochemical and cultural tests, high performance liquid chromatography of cell wall mycolic acids and genetic sequencing. Antimicrobial susceptibility was also determined. The findings confirmed recent data concerning human isolates of this new mycobacterium and identified a new 16S rDNA sequevar for this species.

Aberrant Wnt/beta-catenin pathway activation in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

To investigate the molecular events that may underpin dysfunctional repair processes that characterize idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis/usual interstitial pneumonia (IPF/UIP), we analyzed the expression patterns of beta-catenin on 20 IPF/UIP lung samples, together with two downstream target genes of Wnt signaling, cyclin-D1, and matrilysin. In 18 of 20 cases of IPF/UIP investigated on serial sections, nuclear beta-catenin immunoreactivity and abnormal levels of cyclin-D1 and matrilysin were demonstrated in proliferative bronchiolar lesions (basal-cell hyperplasia, squamous metaplasia, bronchiolization, honeycombing). The nature of these lesions was precisely defined using specific markers (DeltaN-p63, surfactant-protein-A, cytokeratin-5). Interestingly, nuclear beta-catenin accumulation was also demonstrated in fibroblast foci in most (16 of 20) IPF/UIP samples, often associated with bronchiolar lesions. Similar features were not observed in normal lung and other fibrosing pulmonary diseases (diffuse alveolar damage, organizing pneumonia, nonspecific interstitial pneumonia, desquamative interstitial pneumonia). Sequence analysis performed on DNA extracted from three samples of IPF/UIP did not reveal abnormalities affecting the beta-catenin gene. On the basis of these findings new models for IPF/UIP pathogenesis can be hypothesized, centered on the aberrant activation of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling, with eventual triggering of divergent epithelial regeneration at bronchiolo-alveolar junctions and epithelial-mesenchymal-transitions, leading to severe and irreversible remodeling of the pulmonary tissue.

Evaluation of the BDProbeTec ET system for direct detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in pulmonary and extrapulmonary samples: a multicenter study

We evaluated the BDProbeTec ET system (Becton Dickinson, Sparks, Md.), a strand displacement amplification-based technique, for direct detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in 867 clinical samples. Of 294 extrapulmonary specimens, 52 had positive results by both BDProbeTec ET and culture and 209 had negative results by both methods; sensitivity and specificity were 76.5 and 95.9%, respectively. After resolution of discrepancies, the sensitivity rose to 77.8%.

Performance assessment of two commercial amplification assays for direct detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex from respiratory and extrapulmonary specimens

The new BDProbeTec ET Mycobacterium tuberculosis Complex Direct Detection Assay (DTB) was compared with the enhanced M. tuberculosis Amplified Direct Test (AMTDII). The system is an automated walkaway system characterized by simultaneous DNA amplification (strand displacement amplification) and real-time fluorometric detection. It also contains an internal amplification control (IAC) designed to identify inhibition from the processed samples. The AMTDII assay amplifies rRNA by transcription-mediated amplification; it uses hybridization with a chemoluminescent probe as a detection system and is entirely manual. A total of 515 N-acetyl-L-cysteine-sodium hydroxide-decontaminated respiratory (n = 331) and extrapulmonary (n = 184) sediments (from 402 patients) were tested in parallel by both assays. The results were compared with those of acid-fast staining and culture (solid plus liquid media), setting the combination of culture and clinical diagnosis as the "gold standard." Culture results from the tested specimens were as follows: 121 Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (MTB) (98 smear-positive), 46 nontuberculous mycobacteria (38 smear-positive), and 338 culture-negative results. After resolution of the discrepant results, the percent sensitivity, percent specificity, and positive and negative likelihood ratios for AMTDII were 88%, 99.2%, 110, and 0.11 for respiratory specimens and 74.3%, 100%, 740, and 0.26 for extrapulmonary specimens, respectively. The corresponding values for DTB were 94.5%, 99.6%, 235, and 0.05 for respiratory specimens and 92.3%, 100%, 920, and 0.07 for extrapulmonary specimens, respectively. The cumulative difference for all tuberculosis-positive extrapulmonary specimens was significant (P = 0.03). The overall inhibition rate for DTB was 5% (26 specimens). We conclude that both amplification assays proved to be rapid and specific for the detection of MTB in clinical samples and particularly feasible for a routine laboratory work flow. DTB combines a labor-intensive specimen preparation procedure with a completely automated amplification and detection. Finally, differences between AMTDII and DTB sensitivities were associated with the presence of inhibitory samples that the former assay, lacking IAC, could not detect.

Evaluation of the BACTEC MGIT 960 in comparison with BACTEC 460 TB for detection and recovery of mycobacteria from clinical specimens

The BACTEC MGIT system (M960), a fully automated, non radiometric instrument, designed for rapid detection of acid fast bacilli (AFB) from clinical specimens, was compared with the radiometric BACTEC 460 system (B460) and Löwenstein-Jensen (L-J) solid medium. A total of 1,093 respiratory and extrapulmonary specimens were decontaminated by the NALC-NaOH standard method, and randomly inoculated into the media. A total of 122 mycobacteria were recovered, including 47 Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (MTB) isolates and 75 nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM) isolates. Overall recovery rates were 59% for M960 system (p < 0.0001), 58.2% for L-J. medium (p < 0.0001) and 82% for Bactec 460 system, whereas rates for MTB alone were 91.5, 76.6 (p = 0.007), and 95.7%, respectively. The combination of M960 or B460 systems with L-J medium showed the same recovery rates for MTB strains (97.9%), whereas NTM rates were 68% (p < 0.0001) and 93.3%, respectively. Mean time to detection of smear-positive MTB, smear-negative MTB, and NTM were 12.2, 13.4, and 23.3 days, respectively, with the M960, 11.7, 21.3, and 24.8 days with the B460 and 20.4, 28.7, and 28.4 days with L-J medium. The M960 system showed a contamination rate of 9.8%, while B460 and L-J medium showed contamination rates of 4.3 and 3.8% respectively. In conclusion, the M960 system appeared to be accurate and rapid for the recovery of MTB, but reduced recovery of NTM and a high number of contaminated cultures deserve further study in order to assess if this system can represent a valuable alternative to the radiometric system.

Abnormal re-epithelialization and lung remodeling in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis: the role of deltaN-p63

Products of the p63 gene, a recently described member of the p53 family, are constitutively expressed in the basal cells of human bronchi and bronchioli. The truncated isoforms of the p63 gene (deltaN-p63 proteins) counteract the apoptotic and cell cycle inhibitory functions of p53 after DNA damage, and this property is likely to be central in the cell renewal strategy of stratified epithelial tissues. To investigate the dysfunctional repair processes that characterize idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis/usual interstitial pneumonia (IPF/UIP), we immunohistochemically analyzed the expression of the transactivating and dominant-negative isoforms of the p63 gene on 16 tissue samples obtained from patients suffering from this disorder. In most IPF cases herein investigated, epithelial cells expressing deltaN-p63 were observed at sites of abnormal proliferation at the bronchiolo-alveolar junctions, characterized by epithelial hyperplasia, squamous metaplasia, bronchiolization, and abnormal p53 nuclear accumulation. Similar features were not observed in normal lung and in samples taken from other pulmonary diseases used as controls, including acute interstitial pneumonia, idiopathic bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia, nonspecific interstitial pneumonia, and desquamative interstitial pneumonia. On the basis of these findings, we can hypothesize a new model for UIP pathogenesis, involving a deregulated development of mesenchymal-epithelial interactions and abnormal proliferation of epithelial cells at the bronchiolo-alveolar junction after cell injury. In our view, the progressive loss of alveolar tissue and lung remodeling after injury in IPF/UIP is concomitantly produced by pneumocyte loss and alveolar collapse on one hand and by progressive bronchiolar proliferation and architectural distortion on the other.

Evaluation of the DipStreak, a new device with an original streaking mechanism for detection, counting, and presumptive identification of urinary tract pathogens

DipStreak is a new urine culture device with two types of agar attached back-to-back on a plastic paddle. It combines dip-slide technology and an original streaking inoculation mechanism, allowing for bacterial counting and colony isolation. The performance of the DipStreak device with two different medium formulations, CHROMagar and MacConkey media in study A and UriSelect 3 and MacConkey media in study B, was evaluated and compared to that of the reference streak method by using plates of cystine-lactose-electrolyte-deficient (CLED) agar, tryptic soy agar with 5% sheep blood, and UriSelect 3 medium. In study A, 2,000 urine specimens were processed and 511 cultures were found positive. The DipStreak device and the UriSelect 3 and CLED medium plates gave the same detection rate, 99.7%. For the direct identification of Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis, and Enterococcus sp. isolates, the DipStreak device and the UriSelect 3 medium plate showed overall sensitivities of 97 and 93.4%, respectively. In study B, 3,000 urine specimens were processed and 714 cultures were found positive. The DipStreak device and the UriSelect 3 and CLED medium plates gave detection rates of 99.4, 99.9, and 99.2%, respectively. For the direct identification of E. coli, P. mirabilis, and Enterococcus sp. isolates, the DipStreak device and the UriSelect 3 medium plate showed overall sensitivities of 88 and 94.4%, respectively. In conclusion, the DipStreak device with both medium formulations represents an attractive and excellent screening method for the reliable detection, counting, and presumptive identification of urinary tract pathogens. It enables bedside urine inoculation and provides a valid means of transporting the sample back to the laboratory, decreasing drastically the rate of false-positive results due to bacterial overgrowth and reducing associated costs.

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B cells are endowed with the capacity to attract CD4+, CD40L+ T cells by producing CCL22

The natural history of B-chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is not entirely explained by intrinsic defects of the neoplastic cell, but is also favored by microenvironmental signals. As CLL cells retain the capacity to respond to CD40 ligand (CD40L) and as CD4(+) T cells are always present in involved tissues, we asked whether malignant CLL cells might produce T cell-attracting chemokines. We studied the chemokine expression of CD19(+)/CD5(+) malignant B cells from peripheral blood (PB), lymph nodes (LN) or bone marrow (BM) of 32 patients and found a major difference. LN- and BM-, but not PB-derived cells, expressed a readily detectable reverse transcription-PCR band for CCL22 and one for CCL17 of variable intensity. CD40 ligation of PB cells induced the mRNA expression of both CCL22 and CCL17. CCL22 was also released in the culture supernatants. These supernatants induced the migration of activated CD4(+), CD40L(+) T cells expressing the CCL22 receptor, CCR4. T cell migration was abrogated by anti-CCL22 antibodies. Immunohistochemistry and cytofluorography studies revealed that a proportion of CD4(+) T cells in CLL LN and BM expressed CD40L. Our data demonstrate that malignant CLL cells chemo-attract CD4(+) T cells that in turn induce a strong chemokine production by the leukemic clone, suggesting a vicious circle, leading to the progressive accumulation of the neoplastic cells.

Comparative evaluation of two commercial chromogenic media for detection and presumptive identification of urinary tract pathogens

The performance of two commercial chromogenic media for the isolation and presumptive identification of urinary tract pathogens, the CPS ID2 (bioMérieux, France) and the CHROMagar Orientation (BBL Becton Dickinson, USA), was evaluated and compared with that of cystine-lactose-electrolyte-deficient agar and tryptic soy agar with 5% sheep blood. The detection, determination of bacterial counts, and presumptive identification of bacteria causing urinary tract infections were evaluated in 3,000 urine specimens. The two chromogenic media showed excellent correlation with the standard media for the detection and the bacterial count of urinary pathogens. The Escherichia coli strains produced the expected colour on the CHROMagar Orientation and the CPS ID2 media in 99% and 90% of the cases, respectively. The Klebsiella-Enterobacter-Citrobacter and the Proteus-Morganella-Providencia groups were easily identified on both chromogenic media, but further biochemical tests were needed to differentiate them to a species level. Both media enabled the differentiation, with varying degrees of difficulty, of Pseudomonas spp. strains from members of the family Enterobacteriaceae. All isolates of Enterococcus spp. were correctly identified and were easily distinguished from the Streptococcus agalactiae isolates. Staphylococcus saprophyticus isolates were easy to identify only on the CHROMagar Orientation medium. No substantial difference was observed when comparing the results of the susceptibility tests, which were performed according to the standardized disk diffusion method as described by the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards, for colonies recovered from the blood agar versus those recovered from the chromogenic media. In conclusion, the CPS ID2 and CHROMagar Orientation media enabled excellent detection, count determination, and presumptive identification of urinary pathogens, both in pure and mixed cultures, and reliable and accurate antimicrobial susceptibility testing directly from primary isolates. Moreover, these media allowed a remarkable reduction in the workload and a significant savings of time. On the basis of their performance, these media can replace the standard primary plating media used in the routine diagnosis of urinary tract infections.

Direct identification of mycobacteria from MB/BacT alert 3D bottles: comparative evaluation of two commercial probe assays

The new INNO-LiPA Mycobacteria (Innogenetics, Ghent, Belgium), a reverse-hybridization-based line probe assay, and the AccuProbe assay (Gen-Probe Inc., San Diego, Calif.) were applied to MB/BacT Alert 3D (MB/BacT) system (Organon Teknika, Boxtel, The Netherlands) culture bottles and evaluated for mycobacterial identification. From 2,532 respiratory and extrapulmonary specimens submitted for culture, 168 were flagged positive by the MB/BacT system and promptly evaluated for identification (within 24 h). Each of 163 vials grew one mycobacterial isolate, including Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (n = 73), M. avium complex (n = 3), M. avium (n = 8), M. intracellulare (n = 5), M. kansasii (n = 15), M. gordonae (n = 8), M. malmoense (n = 3), M. chelonae (n = 13), M. abscessus (n = 2), M. xenopi (n = 11), M. scrofulaceum (n = 2), M. fortuitum (n = 7), M. terrae (n = 3), M. simiae (n = 2), M. celatum (n = 3), M. flavescens (n = 1), M. interjectum (n = 1), M. bohemicum (n = 1), and M. pulveris (n = 2). Five cultures yielded mixed growth of two mycobacterial species: M. tuberculosis complex plus M. gordonae (n = 2), M. tuberculosis complex plus M. chelonae (n = 1), M. tuberculosis complex plus M. xenopi (n = 1), and M. avium plus M. chelonae (n = 1). In testing of one-isolate vials, both systems showed excellent sensitivity and specificity for all species and complexes for which they are licensed (nine for INNO-LiPA Mycobacteria versus six for AccuProbe). There were minor discrepancies in results for two isolates identified by INNO-LiPA Mycobacteria as M. avium - M. intracellulare - M. scrofulaceum (MAIS) complex and by AccuProbe as M. intracellulare. In testing of two-isolate vials, INNO-LiPA Mycobacteria correctly identified all isolates, while the AccuProbe assay failed to identify three M. tuberculosis complex isolates and one M. avium isolate. The AccuProbe assay was completed within 2 h, while INNO-LiPA Mycobacteria required a 6-h period. In our opinion, INNO-LiPA Mycobacteria offers the following advantages: (i) it contains a genus-specific probe that, in addition to being used in genus identification, may be used as an internal control for both the amplification and hybridization steps; (ii) it simultaneously identifies M. tuberculosis complex, MAIS complex, and seven other mycobacterial species, even from mixed cultures; (iii) its mycobacterial DNA amplification ensures reliable results independent from the concentration of viable microorganisms; and (iv) it genotypically identifies M. kansasii and M. chelonae. In conclusion, even though INNO-LiPA Mycobacteria is considerably less easy to use than AccuProbe, requiring personnel skilled in molecular biology techniques, it represents an excellent approach for routine identification of frequently encountered mycobacteria.

Survivin is expressed on CD40 stimulation and interfaces proliferation and apoptosis in B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia

In B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL), defective apoptosis causes the accumulation of mature CD5(+) B cells in lymphoid organs, bone marrow (BM), and peripheral blood (PB). These cells are the progeny of a proliferating pool that feeds the accumulating compartment. The authors sought to determine which molecular mechanisms govern the proliferating pool, how they relate to apoptosis, and what the role is of the microenvironment. To begin to resolve these problems, the expression and modulation of the family of inhibitor of apoptosis proteins (IAPs) were investigated, with consideration given to the possibility that physiological stimuli, such as CD40 ligand (CD40L), available to B cells in the microenvironment, might modulate IAP expression. The in vitro data on mononuclear cells from PB or BM of 30 patients demonstrate that B-CLL cells on CD40 stimulation express Survivin and that Survivin is the only IAP whose expression is induced by CD40L. Through immunohistochemistry, in vivo Survivin expression in lymph node (LN) and BM biopsies was evaluated. In reactive LN, Survivin was detected only in highly proliferating germinal center cells. In LN from patients with B-CLL, Survivin was detected only in pseudofollicles. Pseudofollicle Survivin(+) cells were actively proliferating and, in contrast to Survivin(+) B cells found in normal GC, were Bcl-2(+). In B-CLL BM biopsies, CD5(+), Survivin(+) cells were observed in clusters interspersed with T cells. These findings establish that Survivin controls the B-CLL proliferative pool interfacing apoptosis and that its expression may be modulated by microenvironmental stimuli.

Azospirillum brasilense and Azospirillum lipoferum hydrolyze conjugates of GA20 and metabolize the resultant aglycones to GA1 in seedlings of rice dwarf mutants

Azospirillum species are plant growth-promotive bacteria whose beneficial effects have been postulated to be partially due to production of phytohormones, including gibberellins (GAs). In this work, Azospirillum brasilense strain Cd and Azospirillum lipoferum strain USA 5b promoted sheath elongation growth of two single gene GA-deficient dwarf rice (Oryza sativa) mutants, dy and dx, when the inoculated seedlings were supplied with [17,17-2H2]GA20-glucosyl ester or [17,17- 2H2]GA20-glucosyl ether. Results of capillary gas chromatography-mass spectrometry analysis show that this growth was due primarily to release of the aglycone [17,17-2H2]GA20 and its subsequent 3beta-hydroxylation to [17,17-2H2]GA1 by the microorganism for the dy mutant, and by both the rice plant and microorganism for the dx mutant.

Osseointegrated Implant for Single-Tooth Replacement: A Retrospective Multicenter Study on Routine Use in Private Practice

BACKGROUND

Implant restorations first started with total edentulism. Later, the scientific community gave its approval for restorations in partial edentulism, and only recently some studies confirmed the validity of the treatment for single-tooth replacement.

PURPOSE

The purpose of the study was to evaluate implant survival and prosthesis stability of Brånemark implants (titanium screws) when used routinely for single-tooth replacement in all regions.

MATERIALS AND METHODS

Two hundred and fourteen patients received 252 implants for single-tooth replacement over a period of 8 years at five private clinics in Italy. The patients were treated in accordance with the protocol for Brånemark implants, and the data gathered have been analyzed according to established evaluation methods.

RESULTS

During the observation period, 10 failures were recorded and 229 restorations were carried out. After the first year of loading, the total cumulative survival rate (CSR) was 96%, which then remained stable over the study time. The most frequent complication was loosening of the abutment screws (n = 22), amounting to 35% of all of the complications. This problem was related mainly to earlier types of abutments, whereas the more recent design, CeraOne abutment, showed a low frequency of screw loosening.

CONCLUSIONS

The high survival rate, which is similar to that presented for prospective multicenter studies for single-tooth restorations with Brånemark implants, led to the conclusion that the use of this treatment modality is a reliable treatment for routine use in all oral regions.

Comparison of enhanced Mycobacterium tuberculosis amplified direct test with COBAS AMPLICOR Mycobacterium tuberculosis assay for direct detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex in respiratory and extrapulmonary specimens

The new Roche COBAS AMPLICOR Mycobacterium tuberculosis Assay was compared to the Gen-Probe enhanced Mycobacterium tuberculosis Amplified Direct Test (AMTDII). A total of 486 specimens (296 respiratory and 190 extrapulmonary) collected from 323 patients were tested in parallel with both assays. Results were compared with those of acid-fast staining and culture, setting the combination of culture and clinical diagnosis as the "gold standard." After resolution of discrepant results, the sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values for AMTDII were 85.7, 100, 100, and 90.4% for respiratory specimens and 82.9, 100, 100, and 95. 5% for extrapulmonary specimens, respectively. The corresponding values for AMPLICOR were 94.2, 100, 100, and 96.6% for respiratory specimens and 85, 100, 100, and 96.1% for extrapulmonary specimens, respectively. No significant differences were observed between the results of both assays or, within each one, between respiratory and extrapulmonary specimens. The difference between AMTDII and AMPLICOR sensitivities was related to the presence of inhibitory samples, which the former assay, lacking an internal amplification control (IAC), could not detect. The overall inhibition rate for the AMPLICOR assay was 3.9% (19 specimens). It is concluded that, although both amplification assays proved to be rapid and specific for the detection of M. tuberculosis complex in clinical samples, AMPLICOR, by a completely automated amplification and detection procedure, was shown to be particularly feasible for a routine laboratory setting. Finally, AMTDII is potentially an excellent diagnostic technique for both respiratory and extrapulmonary specimens, provided that an IAC is included with the assay.

Epidemiology and cost analysis of varicella in Italy: results of a sentinel study in the pediatric practice. Italian Sentinel Group on Pediatric Infectious Diseases

BACKGROUND

Describing the epidemiology of varicella is relevant to the development of specific prevention strategies and to building up of economic models evaluating the cost:efficiency ratios of these strategies.

AIM

Our study was designed to describe the epidemiology of chickenpox among Italian children and to assess the resulting economic and health burden on the country.

METHODS

Thirty-nine Italian pediatricians participated in a sentinel network on pediatric infectious diseases representing a total pediatric population of 30 168 children. Each case of varicella observed from January through December, 1997, was recorded. Economic analysis was conducted from the societal point of view. All costs were broken down into two groups: direct and indirect costs.

RESULTS

A total of 1599 cases of varicella were reported among children 0 to 14 years old. There were 1266 primary cases (mean age, 4.5 +/- 2 years) and 333 secondary cases (mean age, 3.6 +/- 3.2 years). The global incidence of chickenpox was 51.01/1000/year. Complications were seen in 56 cases (3.5%). Drugs were prescribed in 672 cases. A group of adults (364 susceptible and 193 with uncertain status) were exposed to primary cases. Seventy (12.5%) were eventually infected among whom there were 4 pregnant women. For pediatric patients an average cost of $146.90 (250 400 lire) was estimated; this is largely accounted for by indirect costs.

CONCLUSIONS

The epidemiology of varicella in Italy is consistent with that found in previous studies in industrialized countries. Severe complications did not occur in our population. We believe that the health arguments in favor of universal vaccination of children > 18 months of age do not differ in our own country from those of other industrialized nations. Our data could now be incorporated into pharmacoeconomic models to establish cost-efficient strategies for Italy.

["Hyperferritinemia-cataract syndrome." Description of a new hereditary disease, from anamnesis to molecular diagnosis]

A new autosomal-dominant genetic disorder, which has been recently identified by our group is described. The disease is clinically characterized by the combination of a substantial increase of serum ferritin and early-onset bilateral cataract. Moreover, it is clearly distinguishable from genetic hemochromatosis because of: 1) normal to low serum iron and transferrin saturation, without evidence of parenchymal iron overload; 2) the dominant transmission; 3) the lack of any relation with HLA; 4) the rapid development of iron-deficient anemia when unnecessary phlebotomies are performed. The molecular basis of the new syndrome is a mutation in the L-subunit ferritin gene on chromosome 19 (19q13.3-->19qter). The mutation involves a five nucleotide sequence [CAGUG] of the iron-responsive-element (IRE), which is critical for the post-transcriptional regulation of ferritin synthesis by means of the binding with an Iron Regulatory Protein. As a consequence, ferritin synthesis is up-regulated, irrespective of cell iron status.

RFLP analysis with cDNA probes for DQ/DP region in HLA identical sibling marrow transplants: lack of correlation with GvHD

BACKGROUND

The role of HLA-DP as transplantation antigen in contributing to GvHD is a matter of current debate. HLA-DP, is encoded centromeric to DR-DQ and its alleles are in weak linkage disequilibrium with the rest of the MHC; thus a certain number of HLA matched pairs could be actually DP incompatible to study a possible correlation between HLA-DP matching and GvHD, 24 HLA identical BMT/donor-recipient sibling pairs (serologically tested for HLA Class I and DR antigens) were tested for DQ and DP genes using restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis.

METHODS

DNA extracts were digested according to a standard procedure with two different restriction enzymes (HIND III and MSP I) and hybridised with DQ (alpha and beta) and DP (alpha and beta) specific probes. Highly stringent hybridization and washing conditions were used to prevent cross-hybridizations.

RESULTS

Twenty four out of 24 pairs proved to be DQ and DP identical. GvHD developed in 16 out of 24 (66.6%) recipients.

DISCUSSION

These data suggest that DNa analysis of DQ-DP regions, with the probes and enzymes used, does not give predictive informations for GvHD in HLA genotypically identical pairs.

[Multidisciplinary approach to repositioning of impacted upper canines]

In this paper, the Authors present epidemiology, ethiopatology, diagnosis and treatments elements of the impacted canines. Furthermore they describe the different surgical techniques needed for the exposure of these teeth.

[Optimization of the surgical technic for extraction of the lower third molars]

The high incidence of third molar extraction is related to their frequent pathology. The use of an uncomplicated and reliable diagnostic and therapeutic protocol therefore became extremely important. The protocol has to include careful selection and preparation as well as the appropriate choice of instruments and surgical techniques. This is even more important, considering the elective nature of the procedure and the local and more rarely, systemic complications that could develop.